I will exclude the trivial cases $a=0$ or $b=0$. If $a$ and $b$ are coprime, then the least common multiple coincides with $a \cdot b$. As for the general case, you can conclude by noticing that $\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}$ and $\frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}$ are coprime. Thus,
$$
\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)} \cdot \frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)} = \text{LCM}\left(\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}, \frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}\right)
$$
By multiplying both sides by $\text{GCD}(a,b)^2$, you obtain
$$
a \cdot b = \text{GCD}(a,b)^2 \cdot \text{LCM}\left(\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}, \frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}\right) = \text{GCD}(a,b) \cdot \text{LCM}(a,b).
$$
In the last step, I used the property
$$
\text{GCD}(a,b) \cdot \text{LCM}\left(\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}, \frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}\right) = \text{LCM}(a,b),
$$
which intuitively seems true. Although I haven't rigorously proven it, I visualized the prime factorization of the two integers and it appeared to hold. When you divide both $a$ and $b$ by their GCD, you eliminate the common powers of primes with the least exponent. The least common multiple between $\frac{a}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}$ and $\frac{b}{\text{GCD}(a,b)}$ has the same factorization as $\text{LCM}(a,b)$ except for those common powers of primes with the least exponent that were subtracted earlier. By multiplying by $\text{GCD}(a,b)$, you reintroduce those missing powers, resulting in the recovery of $\text{LCM}(a,b)$. Does this explanation make sense? I assumed you were open to any form of assistance based on your statement.
$$\begin{align} a,b\mid m&\iff\ \ \ \ \ \ a\mid (m/b):!b\ &\iff\ , \color{#c00}{a/d}\mid (m/b):!\color{#c00}{b/d}\ &\iff \ ,a/d\mid\ m/b,\ \ {\rm by}\ \ \color{#c00}{(a/d,b/d)=1},\ \text{& Lemma}\ &\iff \color{#0a0}{ba/d}\mid\ m \qquad\end{align}$$
– Bill Dubuque Dec 27 '23 at 19:39