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It is well known how to parameterize rational solutions to $x^2+y^2=a$ for $a\in \mathbb N^+$: first we know which $a$ admit integer solutions; our characterization is strong enough to tell us that theses are exactly the $a$ admitting rational solutions; then if we have one rational solution we can get all of them by drawing rational-slope lines through that one point.

I am interested in knowing if people understand well the algebraic solutions to $x^2+y^2=a$, i.e. the solutions $x,y\in \overline{\mathbb Q}$ to $x^2+y^2=a$.

In particular, I am interested in knowing if there exists an algebraic solution $(x_0,y_0)\in \overline{\mathbb Q} \times \overline{\mathbb Q}$ to $x^2+y^2=3$ such that the degree of the field extension $[\mathbb Q(x_0,y_0): \mathbb Q]$ is odd. (Indeed it has no solutions over $\mathbb Q$)

EDIT: a "famous" (in the sense of large number of upvotes/views) question on MSE in fact shows that $[\mathbb Q(x_0+iy_0):\mathbb Q]$ must be even. If $z_0:= x_0+iy_0$ was a root of unity (of say order $n$), then $z_0^{n-1} = \overline{z_0}$, and so $\mathbb Q(z_0) = \mathbb Q(z_0, \overline{z_0})= \mathbb Q(x_0,iy_0)$. Unfortunately, this does not give us what we want, and moreover, $z_0$ does not have to be a root of unity.

D.R.
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1 Answers1

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Theorem. Let $d \in \mathbf Q$ not be a square and $a$ be nonzero in $\mathbf Q$. If the equation $x^2 - dy^2 = a$ has a solution in an odd-degree extension of $\mathbf Q$ then it has a solution in $\mathbf Q$.

Therefore when $x^2 - dy^2 = a$ has no solution $(x,y)$ in $\mathbf Q$, it has no solution in any odd-degree extension of $\mathbf Q$.

Proof. This will be an application of transitivity of the norm map.

Suppose there's a number field $K$ with odd degree $n$ over $\mathbf Q$ such that $x^2 - dy^2 = a$ for some $x, y \in K$. Since $d$ is not a square in $\mathbf Q$ and $[K:\mathbf Q]$ is odd, $\sqrt{d} \not \in K$, so $[K(\sqrt{d}):K] = 2$. Then $$ a = x^2 - dy^2 = {\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/K}(x + y\sqrt{d}). $$ Applying the norm map from $K$ down to $\mathbf Q$ to that equation: $$ a^n = {\rm N}_{K/\mathbf Q}({\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/K}(x+y\sqrt{d})) = {\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q}(x+y\sqrt{d}). $$ We used transitivity of the norm map at the end of that calculation. Now going from $K(\sqrt{d})$ down to $\mathbf Q$ via the intermediate field $\mathbf Q(\sqrt{d})$ rather than the intermediate field $K$, $$ {\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q}(x+y\sqrt{d}) = {\rm N}_{\mathbf Q(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q}({\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q(\sqrt{d})}(x+y\sqrt{d})) . $$ Writing the norm ${\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q(\sqrt{d})}(x+y\sqrt{d})$ as $r + s\sqrt{d}$ where $r$ and $s$ are rational, $$ {\rm N}_{K(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q}(x+y\sqrt{d}) = {\rm N}_{\mathbf Q(\sqrt{d})/\mathbf Q}(r+s\sqrt{d}) = r^2 - ds^2, $$ so $a^n = r^2 - ds^2$. Since $n$ is odd, say $n = 2k+1$, we have $a = (r/a^k)^2 - d(s/a^k)^2$ since $a \not= 0$. Thus the equation $x^2 - dy^2 = a$ has a rational solution $(x,y) = (r/a^k,s/a^k)$. That proves the theorem.

While writing this up, I was pretty sure there is some general theorem about quadratic forms that has this result as a special case, and I thought Pete Clark may have written about it here or on MO once. A little searching led me to the desired result here. and Pete indeed posted an answer there. The general result about quadratic forms is called Springer's theorem.

KCd
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  • Beautiful! Nice how it worked out so cleanly. Do you know any further results regarding algebraic points on circles? i.e. parameterizations of interesting infinite families of solutions (e.g. infinitely many solutions with $[\mathbb Q(x_0,y_0):\mathbb Q]=d$ for every even $d$), or any understanding of the structure of these solutions, etc.? – D.R. Feb 27 '24 at 07:26
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    Nice answer! Probably it's nice to note that for conics (rather than quadratic forms in general) it's a bit easier than applying Springer's theorem. A point $P \in C$ which is minimally defined over an odd degree extension of a field $k$ then cuts out a $k$-rational divisor of odd degree on $C$. Subtracting an appropriate multiple of the canonical is a degree $1$ divisor, and we're in genus $0$ so that's a point – Mummy the turkey Feb 27 '24 at 07:45