I know that this can be proven inductively. However, I can't get passed the trig. I am pretty sure trig identities can show that the expression above is true for $n=0$, and that if the expression holds for $n=k$ it holds for $n=k+1$. But alas, I am getting lost in a sea of trig. Hopefully someone can shed some light on this.
Asked
Active
Viewed 3,222 times
5
-
1Hint : $\sum_{k=1}^n cos(nx)=Re(\sum_{k=1}^n e^{inx})$ – Bertrand R Oct 09 '13 at 22:25
-
Looks like you can derive this result using Fourier series – peterwhy Oct 09 '13 at 22:26
-
@peterwhy That would be odd, since this is an important inequality to derive some identities concerning the Dirichlet kernel. – Pedro Oct 09 '13 at 22:33
-
@PedroTamaroff well, not exactly using a lot of Fourier series, but deriving using an idea from frequency domain is possible. – peterwhy Oct 09 '13 at 22:36
-
@peterwhy (I wouldn't say your answer is using Fourier series, but it is a nice one. +1) – Pedro Oct 09 '13 at 22:39
-
Related : http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/17966/how-can-we-sum-up-sin-and-cos-series-when-the-angles-are-in-arithmetic-pro – lab bhattacharjee Oct 10 '13 at 05:29
2 Answers
5
Hint: $$ 2\cos(kx)\,\sin(\frac{x}{2})=\sin\left(kx+\frac{x}{2}\right)- \sin\left(kx-\frac{x}{2}\right) $$
Pocho la pantera
- 2,436