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Prove that

$$ \frac{(p - 1)!}{(p - k)! \cdot k!} $$

is an integer if $0 < k < p$ and $p$ is prime.

1 Answers1

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HINT: Use your previous question and the fact that $$\frac{(p - 1)!}{(p - k)! \cdot k!}=\frac1p\binom{p}k\;.$$

Brian M. Scott
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