Here's a probabilistic proof.
We have $n$ balls in a bag, $m$ are white, $r=n-m$ are red. We do the following experiment: we draw a random integer $k$, uniformly distributed in $0 \dots n$, and then we pick randomly $k$ balls (without replacement). Let $W$ be the event that all balls are white (more precisely, that no ball is red).
Then $$P(W |k) = \frac{{m \choose k}}{{n \choose k}} [k\le m]$$
and
$$P(W) = \sum_{k} P(W |k) P(k) =\frac{1}{n+1} \sum_{k=0}^m \frac{{m \choose k}}{{n \choose k}} \tag{1} $$
Alternatively, our experiment is equivalent to: produce a random permutation of the $n$ balls, then check if the first $k$ balls ($k$ drawn as before) are white. Which is the same as saying: place a random bar in between the $n$ balls ($n+1$ positions) and check if it falls before the first red ball. Which is the same as thinking the bar as a new additional red ball, and looking if this one is the first red ball among the total $r+1$ red balls. Then
$$P(W)=\frac{1}{r+1}=\frac{1}{n-m+1} \tag{2}$$
Equating (1) and (2) we get the desired result.
A similar alternative combinatorial way: We have $n+1$ balls, $m$ white, $r=n-m$ red, and one orange, otherwise undistinguishable. Let's $C$ count the number of ways of placing the balls in $n+1$ cells (numbered from $0$ to $n$) so that no red ball is before the orange one.
Summing over all the positions of the orange ball, we have
$$C= \sum_{k=0}^m {n-k \choose m-k} ={n \choose m}\sum_{k=0}^m \frac{{m \choose k}}{{n \choose k}} \tag{3}$$
(for last equality see Isomorphism's answer).
On the other side, we can consider the orange-red balls as a group (considering the orange distinguishable and placing it first, is the same as condiring the group undistinguishable), which gives ${n+1 \choose m}$ arrangements. Hence
$$C={n+1 \choose m} ={n \choose m} \frac{n+1}{n-m+1} \tag{4}$$
(again, for last equality see Isomorphism's answer).
Equating (3) and (4) we get the desired result.