I am wondering if I can get some help with this question. I feel like this is false, as I have tried many ways even to get the base case working (for induction) and I can't seem to get it. Can anyone confirm that this is false? If I am wrong, I would really appreciate a hint.
$$\sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i(i+1)} = \frac{3}{4} - \frac{2n+3}{2(n+1)(n+2)}$$