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Let $v= \arctan{x}$. Now I want to find $\frac{dv}{dx}$. My method is this: Rearranging yields $\tan(v) = x$ and so $dx = \sec^2(v)dv$. How do I simplify from here? Of course I could do something like $dx = \sec^2(\arctan(x))dv$ so that $\frac{dv}{dx} = \cos^2(\arctan(x))$ but I am sure a better expression exists. I am probably just missing some crucial step where we convert one of the trigonometric expressions into an expression involving $x$. Thanks in advance for any help or tips!

Slugger
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4 Answers4

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The derivative of $\tan v$ is $1+\tan^2 v$. It will be easier to simplify, since here $v=\arctan x$.

You may check:

$$\sec^2 v = \frac{1}{\cos^2 v} = \frac{\cos^2 v + \sin^2 v}{\cos^2 v} = 1+\tan^2 v$$

Then

$$\mathrm{d}x = (1+\tan^2 v) \ \mathrm{d}v = (1+x^2) \ \mathrm{d}v$$

And

$$\frac{\mathrm{d}v}{\mathrm{d}x}=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$$

  • Perfect thanks a lot, this is very clear. I see now that using $\cos^2(x) = \frac{1}{\tan(x)^2+1}$ will also change the expression $\cos^2(\arctan(x))$ into $\frac{1}{1+x^2}$. Thanks for the answer! – Slugger Nov 28 '13 at 15:24
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Another way :

$$\frac{d\arctan x}{dx}=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\arctan(x+h)-\arctan x}h$$

$$\displaystyle=\lim_{h\to0}\frac{\arctan\frac{x+h-x}{1+(x+h)x}}h$$

$$\displaystyle=\lim_{h\to0}\left(\frac{\arctan\frac h{1+(x+h)x}}{\frac h{1+(x+h)x}}\right)\cdot\frac1{\lim_{h\to0}\{1+(x+h)x\}}=1\cdot\frac1{1+x^2}$$

as $\displaystyle\lim_{u\to0}\frac{\arctan u}u=\lim_{v\to0}\frac v{\tan v}=\lim_{v\to0}\cos v\cdot\frac1{\lim_{v\to0}\frac{\sin v}v}=1\cdot1$

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You can also use the Inverse Derivative Formula, which states that if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are inverse functions, we have $$ g'(x) = \dfrac {1}{f'(g(x))}. $$So, if $g(x)=\arctan x$, our task is to find $g'(x)$. In that case, we have $f(x)=\tan x$, which gives us $f'(x)=sec^2 x$, so we can substitute: $$ \begin {align*} g'(x) &= \dfrac {1}{f'(g(x))} \\&= \dfrac {1}{\sec^2 (g(x))} \\&= \dfrac {1}{\sec^2 (\arctan x)}. \end {align*} $$We can find $ \sec (\arctan x) $ geometrically. Consider a right triangle with legs of length $x$, $1$, and $\sqrt{1+x^2}$. Let $\theta$ be the angle opposite to the leg of length $x$. Then, $$ \sec \left( \arctan x \right) = \sec (\theta) = \sqrt {1+x^2}, $$ so our answer is $$ \dfrac {1}{\left( \sqrt{1+x^2} \right)^2} = \boxed {\dfrac {1}{1+x^2}}. $$

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$$v=\arctan(x)\Rightarrow x=\tan v\Rightarrow x'=\frac{1}{(\tan v)'}=\frac{1}{(\frac{\sin v}{\cos v})'}=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{\cos^2 v}}=\cos^2 v=\frac{\cos^2 v}{1}$$ $$=\frac{\cos^2 v}{\cos^2 v+\sin^2 v}=\frac{\frac{\cos^2 v}{\cos^2 v}}{\frac{\cos^2 v+\sin^2 v}{\cos^2 v}}=\frac{1}{1+\tan^2 v}=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$$ i.e $$v'=(\arctan(x))'=\frac{1}{1+x^2}$$

Madrit Zhaku
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  • I am not sure I follow exactly. Your second equation says $x=\tan v$ and then you follow by saying $x' =\frac{1}{(\tan v)'}$... Maybe I am missing something – Slugger Nov 28 '13 at 15:27
  • Sir, my solution is correct, You can also use the Inverse Derivative Formula, – Madrit Zhaku Nov 28 '13 at 15:31
  • Oh, it seems this is essentially what I did, but I posted a few minutes later. I didn't see your post when I posted, so it's not that I copied. Should I delete my post? – Ahaan S. Rungta Nov 28 '13 at 15:32
  • I am sure it is correct, it is just that I am do not understand one of the steps. Nonetheless, thanks for your answer! – Slugger Nov 28 '13 at 15:33
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    @MadritZhaku When somebody asks you to explain what you did, "it is correct" is not as helpful as actually explaining what you did. If you don't have the patience to elaborate, don't respond at all. Your comment came off quite rude. – Ahaan S. Rungta Nov 28 '13 at 15:33
  • @Slugger I admire your patience. To explain that step, I'd say he's just using the Inverse Derivative Formula which I linked you to in my answer. I agree it is not clear. – Ahaan S. Rungta Nov 28 '13 at 15:34
  • @ Ahaan Rungta no, must be deleted your solution, and you have given a good solution – Madrit Zhaku Nov 28 '13 at 15:34
  • @MadritZhaku Sorry, what are you saying? I can't quite comprehend? Should I delete my post or not? – Ahaan S. Rungta Nov 28 '13 at 15:35
  • Sir, I think your answer is very good – Madrit Zhaku Nov 28 '13 at 15:36
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    all is well that ends well :) – Slugger Nov 28 '13 at 15:37
  • I think my answer is very clear, ie to understand the need to know Inverse Derivative Formula, also that $\cos^2 x=\frac{1}{\tan^ x} $ – Madrit Zhaku Nov 28 '13 at 15:39