Let $f,f_1,f_2,\ldots\colon\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ be continuous functions in $L^2(\mathbb{R})$. Suppose that $\|f_n-f\|_2\rightarrow 0$ as $n\rightarrow 0$. Is it true that $f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)$ for almost every $x$?
Without the continuity assumption, I remember this is not true. But what about with continuity?