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How can I find all discontious solutions of functional equation $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ on $[0,1]$. Similar question is to find all solutions of the equation $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ on $[0,\infty)$. Can we still use Hamel basis?

milk
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  • See http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/609603/solutions-of-fx-cdot-fy-fx-cdot-y/609667#609667 – Yiorgos S. Smyrlis Dec 18 '13 at 05:08
  • This does not seem to be a direct duplicate, since here the $f$ need not be continuous, and hence the Hamel bases might be relevant. – ronno Dec 21 '13 at 04:37
  • This is not a duplicate, none of the answers cover the issue of "restricted domain" which potential allow more solutions. – achille hui Dec 21 '13 at 09:39
  • @achille: I take your point; the closure decision now looks a bit hasty/inaccurate. Still the question is so close to the one linked to that any answer will want to make use of the material covered in the answers to that question. Maybe it would be a little better to have an answer to this extension added to the existing answers to the other question? (Maybe not...) – Pete L. Clark Dec 21 '13 at 10:11

2 Answers2

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In certain sense, the first problem $$f(xy) = f(x)f(y)\quad\text{ for all } (x,y) \in [0,1]^2\tag{*1}$$ has one and only one more solution than corresponding problem over $[0,\infty)$: $$g(xy) = g(x)g(y)\quad\text{ for all } (x,y) \in [0,\infty)^2\tag{*2}$$

  1. If $f(0) \ne 0$, then $f(0) = f(0\cdot x) = f(0)f(x) \implies f(x) = 1$ for all $x \in [0,1]$.
    It is clear $g(x) \equiv 1$ is also a solution of $(*2)$

  2. If $f(1) \ne 1$, then $f(x) = f(1\cdot x) = f(1)f(x) \implies f(x) = 0$ for all $x \in [0,1]$.
    it is clear $g(x) \equiv 0$ is also a solution for $(*2)$.

  3. If $f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1$ and $f(x_0) = 0$ for some $x_0 \in (0,1)$, then

    • for any $x \in (0,x_0)$, we have $f(x) = f(x_0\cdot\frac{x}{x_0}) = f(x_0)f(\frac{x}{x_0}) = 0$.
    • for any $x \in ( x_0, 1) $, we can pick a $n \in \mathbb{Z}_{+}$ such that $x^n < x_0$, we have $f(x)^n = f(x^n) = 0 \implies f(x) = 0$.

    Combine these, one find $(*1)$ has a discontinuous solution $$f(x) = \begin{cases}0, & x \in [0,1)\\1,& x = 1\end{cases}$$ which isn't a restriction for any solution of $(*2)$.

  4. If a solution of $(*1)$ doesn't fall into above 3 cases, we have $f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1$ and $f(x) \ne 0,\;\forall x \in (0,1]$. We can then extend it to a function $g(x)$ over $[0,\infty)$ by: $$g(x) = \begin{cases}f(x), & x \in [0,1]\\ \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{x})}, & x \in [1,\infty)\end{cases}$$ One can verify this $g(x)$ is well defined and is a solution of $(*2)$:

    • $x \le 1, y \le 1 \implies\\\quad\quad g(xy) = f(xy) = f(x)f(y) = g(x)g(y)$.
    • $x \le 1, y \ge 1, xy \le 1 \implies\\\quad\quad g(xy) = f(xy) = f(xy)f(\frac{1}{y})g(y) = f(x)g(y) = g(x)g(y)$.
    • $x \le 1, y \ge 1, xy \ge 1 \implies\\\quad\quad g(xy) = \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{xy})} = f(x)\frac{1}{f(x)f(\frac{1}{xy})} = f(x)\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{y})} = g(x)g(y) $
    • $x \ge 1, y \ge 1 \implies\\\quad\quad g(xy) = \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{xy})} = \frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{x})f(\frac{1}{y})} = g(x)g(y)$.

What this means is aside from the $3^{th}$ case, every solution of $(*1)$ is a restriction of a solution of $(*2)$. So restricting our first problem to a restricted domain doesn't generate anything really interesting.

achille hui
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To start with your second question, f is a linear operator, which in this case means a linear function with f(0) = 0. The so entire solution set is f(x) = ax where a is a constant.

Pete L. Clark provides a link below showing that there are other solutions. This link seems clearer: http://sunejakobsen.wordpress.com/2010/12/20/cauchy%E2%80%99s-functional-equation-i/ , especially in being explicit that these strange solutions are discontinuous.

The obvious continuous solutions of f(xy) = f(x)f(y) are all of the form f(x) = $x^r$ where r is a constant.

Pete L. Clark
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Betty Mock
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  • With regard to the assertion of the first paragraph, please see e.g. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cauchy%27s_functional_equation. With regard to your construction of discontinuous solutions to $f(xy) = f(x)f(y)$: try out $2 = \sqrt{2} \sqrt{2}$ and then $2 = \sqrt[3]{2} \sqrt[3]{2} \sqrt[3]{2}$ to see that $b^2 = a = b^3$ and thus $a = b= 1$. – Pete L. Clark Dec 21 '13 at 04:00
  • Fascinating paper. I wouldn't have guessed. Re the ax,bx that is my usual muddledness -- worked it out right the first time, rethought it and got it wrong. Sorry. – Betty Mock Dec 21 '13 at 08:08