I usually do it like this:
You want to show that
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{n} i^2 = \frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6}$$
The base case it's okay. Now let's assume the formula is valid for $N$, we want to demonstrate the following, that is
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{N+1} i^2 = \frac{(N+1)(N+2)(2(N+1)+1)}{6} \ \ (1) $$
that is to say
$$\sum\limits_{i=0}^{N} i^2 + (N + 1)^2 = \frac{(N+1)(N+2)(2(N+1)+1)}{6}\ \ (2) $$
$\Rightarrow$
$$\frac{N(N+1)(2N+1)}{6} + (N+1)^2 = \frac{(N+1)(N+2)(2(N+1)+1)}{6}\ \ (3) $$
Now you dont need any "creativity", just show that the last equality is right by simplification and you're good
EDIT:
Just to make it clear, it is not a pitfall, because equalities are equivalence relations; that means that you can go from 1 to 2 to 3, as well as from 3 to 2 to 1. (since we went from 1 to 2 to 3 through a sequence of equalities)
Basically:
if you show that (3) is equivalent to $0=0$, which is True, then also (3) is true.
Then also (2) is true. Then also (1) is true.
EDIT 2:
If you meant that you feel like "cheating" because you already know what the final formula look like, then the whole induction process is "cheating"
Induction can only be used to prove if a statement is right, but you have to "guess it" beforehand, somehow.
There are other methods that "builds" the final formula but induction is not one of them.