0

I know that $ax=1$ has a solution in $F$ so that every element must be a unit but then I'm not sure how to proceed.

user134824
  • 12,212
  • 1
    Can you think of an inverse of the polynomial $x$?\ –  Apr 28 '14 at 02:28
  • That has a solution for every x in F, but that is not really the same x as the indeterminate of the polynomial ring. – rschwieb Apr 28 '14 at 02:38

3 Answers3

5

It's obvious that $F[x]/(x) $ is isomorphic to $F$, and hence $(x)$ is a non trivial proper ideal of $F[x]$, and hence $F[x]$ can't be a field.

(Note that there are other trivial ways of doing this problem, as mentioned in the comments, and an answer above, but I thought of doing this problem in a bit different way, just for fun.)

voldemort
  • 13,182
5

Hint $\rm\rm\,\ x \; f(x) = 1 \,$ in $\rm\ F[x]\, \Rightarrow\, 0 = 1 \, $ in $\rm F \, $ by evaluating at $\rm\ x = 0.\ $

If you know the universal (mapping) property of the polynomial ring then you may find it instructive to interpret the above from that viewpoint (see here).

Bill Dubuque
  • 272,048
4

Can you find a polynomial in $p \in F[x]$ such that $p(x)\cdot x = 1$? Why not?

Ben Grossmann
  • 225,327