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The following problem came up at dinner, I know some ways to solve it but they are quite ugly and as some wise man said: There is no place in the world for ugly mathematics.

These methods are using l'Hôpital, but that becomes quite hideous very quickly or by using series expansions.

So I'm looking for slick solutions to the following problem:

Compute $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sin(\tan x) - \tan(\sin x)}{\arcsin(\arctan x) - \arctan(\arcsin x)}$.

I'm curious what you guys will make of this.

JT_NL
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2 Answers2

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Some details get lost because of the fact that $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{x}=1$. I have adjusted this answer to accept $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{x}=a$ to expose those details.


If $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{x}=a$, then $f'(f^{-1}(0))=f'(0)=a$. Furthermore, if $f^{(k)}(0)=0$ for $1<k<n$, but $f^{(n)}(0)\not=0$, we can use L'Hopital twice to get $$ \begin{align} \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-ax}{x/a-f^{-1}(x)} &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f'(x)-a}{1/a-1/f'(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=af'(f^{-1}(0))\;\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f'(x)-a}{f'(f^{-1}(x))-a}\\ &=a^2\cdot\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f''(x)}{f''(f^{-1}(x))/f'(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=a^2f'(f^{-1}(0))\;\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f''(x)}{f''(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=a^3\cdot\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f''(x)}{f''(f^{-1}(x))}\tag{1} \end{align} $$ Note that if $f^{(k)}(0)=0$, L'Hopital yields $$ \begin{align} a^{k+1}\cdot\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f^{(k)}(x)}{f^{(k)}(f^{-1}(x))} &=a^{k+1}\cdot\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f^{(k+1)}(x)}{f^{(k+1)}(f^{-1}(x))/f'(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=a^{k+1}f'(f^{-1}(0))\;\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f^{(k+1)}(x)}{f^{(k+1)}(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=a^{k+2}\cdot\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f^{(k+1)}(x)}{f^{(k+1)}(f^{-1}(x))}\tag{2} \end{align} $$ Using $(1)$ and repeating $(2)$, we get that $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-ax}{x/a-f^{-1}(x)}=a^{n+1}\frac{f^{(n)}(0)}{f^{(n)}(f^{-1}(0))}=a^{n+1}\tag{3} $$ Suppose $g^{(k)}(0)=0$ for $0\le k<m$ and $g^{(m)}(0)\not=0$ and $\displaystyle\lim_{x\to0}\frac{h(x)}{x}=1$. Then $$ \begin{align} \lim_{x\to0}\frac{g^{(k)}(h(x))}{g^{(k)}(x)} &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g^{(k+1)}(h(x))h'(x)}{g^{(k+1)}(x)}\\ &=h'(0)\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g^{(k+1)}(h(x))}{g^{(k+1)}(x)}\\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g^{(k+1)}(h(x))}{g^{(k+1)}(x)}\\ &=\frac{g^{(m)}(h(0))}{g^{(m)}(0)}\\ &=1\tag{4} \end{align} $$

To finish things off, let $f(x)=\sin(\tan(\arcsin(\arctan(x))))$, $h(x)=\tan(\sin(x))$, and $a=1$. Then, $$ \begin{align} &\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin(\tan(x))-\tan(\sin(x))}{\arcsin(\arctan(x))-\arctan(\arcsin(x))}\\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(h(x))-ah(x)}{h^{-1}(x/a)-h^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(h(x))-ah(x)}{h(x)/a-f^{-1}(h(x))}\frac{h(x)/a-f^{-1}(h(x))}{x/a-f^{-1}(x)}\frac{x/a-f^{-1}(x)}{h^{-1}(x/a)-h^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))}\\ &=a^{n+1}\tag{5} \end{align} $$ because $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(h(x))-ah(x)}{h(x)/a-f^{-1}(h(x))}=a^{n+1} $$ by $(3)$, and $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{h(x)/a-f^{-1}(h(x))}{x/a-f^{-1}(x)}=1 $$ by $(4)$ using $g(x)=x/a-f^{-1}(x)$, and $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{x/a-f^{-1}(x)}{h^{-1}(x/a)-h^{-1}(f^{-1}(x))}=\frac{1}{1/h'(h^{-1}(0))}=1 $$


Summary: Letting $g(x)=ah(x)$, we get that if $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{x}=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g(x)}{x}=a $$ and $f^{(k)}(0)=g^{(k)}(0)$ for $1<k<n$, but $f^{(n)}(0)\not=g^{(n)}(0)$, then $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x)}=a^{n+1} $$
Simpler approach: Convinced that there must be a simpler approach, I have revisited this answer.

For some $n>1$, assume

  1. $f,g\in C^n$

  2. $f^{(k)}(0)=g^{(k)}(0)$ for $k< n$ and $f^{(n)}(0)\not=g^{(n)}(0)$

  3. $f(0)=0$ and $f'(0)=a\not=0$

These assumptions imply that $f(x)=ax+O(x^2)$ and $g(x)=ax+O(x^2)$.

Furthermore, $f^{-1}(x)=x/a+O(x^2)$ and $g^{-1}(x)=x/a+O(x^2)$.

Assumption 2 implies that $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{x^n}=\frac{f^{(n)}(0)-g^{(n)}(0)}{n!}\not=0\tag{6} $$ Substituting $x\mapsto f^{-1}(x)$ and using $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{g(g^{-1}(x))-g(f^{-1}(x))}{g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x)}=g'(0)=a$ yields $$ \begin{align} \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{x^n} &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(f^{-1}(x))-g(f^{-1}(x))}{f^{-1}(x)^n}\\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g(g^{-1}(x))-g(f^{-1}(x))}{f^{-1}(x)^n}\\ &=\lim_{x\to0}\frac{a(g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x))}{(x/a)^n}\\ &=a^{n+1}\lim_{x\to0}\frac{g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x)}{x^n}\tag{7} \end{align} $$ Dividing both sides of $(7)$ by $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x)}{x^n}$ yields $$ \lim_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)-g(x)}{g^{-1}(x)-f^{-1}(x)}=a^{n+1}\tag{8} $$

robjohn
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  • Well done! This is a L'Hopital solution, but then nicer than the one I had. One could also fill in odd-degree polynomials (since that will be the series expansion) and get the result. I wonder if there is a nicer trick. – JT_NL Nov 09 '11 at 12:27
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    +1 A very nice approach! Quite concise, elegant and to the point. – Domagoj Pandža Apr 04 '12 at 17:56
  • Why $f′(f^{-1}(0))=f′(0)=a$? – João Víctor Melo Dec 01 '21 at 11:04
  • @JoãoVíctorMelo: $\lim\limits_{x\to0}\frac{f(x)}{x}=a$ implies $f(0)=0$, which means $f^{-1}(0)=0$. Furthermore, it means that $f'(0)=a$. – robjohn Dec 01 '21 at 16:53
  • I still don't fully comprehend why $f(0) = 0$ derives from the limit. – João Víctor Melo Dec 01 '21 at 17:19
  • For all $x$ close to $0$, $\frac{f(x)}{x}$ is close to $a$, that means $f(x)$ is between $\left(a-\frac12\right)x$ and $\left(a+\frac12\right)x$, then apply the Squeeze Theorem as $x\to0$. – robjohn Dec 01 '21 at 20:08
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We can proceed by Taylor expansion, which is the best way in this case, and we have

  • $\tan x=x+\frac{x^3}3+\frac{2x^5}{15}+\frac{17x^7}{315}+O(x^9) $
  • $\sin x=x-\frac{x^3}6+\frac{x^5}{120}-\frac{x^7}{5040}+O(x^9) $
  • $\arctan x=x-\frac{x^3}3+\frac{x^5}{5}-\frac{x^7}{7}+O(x^9) $
  • $\arcsin x=x+\frac{x^3}6+\frac{3x^5}{40}+\frac{5x^7}{112}+O(x^9) $

and then

  • $ \sin(\tan x)=x+\frac{x^3}6-\frac{x^5}{40}-\frac{55x^7}{1008}+O(x^9)$
  • $ \tan(\sin x)=x+\frac{x^3}6-\frac{x^5}{40}-\frac{107x^7}{5040}+O(x^9)$
  • $ \arcsin(\arctan x)=x-\frac{x^3}6+\frac{13x^5}{120}-\frac{341x^7}{5040}+O(x^9)$
  • $ \arctan(\arcsin x)=x-\frac{x^3}6+\frac{13x^5}{120}-\frac{173x^7}{5040}+O(x^9)$

and therefore

$$\frac{\sin(\tan x) - \tan(\sin x)}{\arcsin(\arctan x) - \arctan(\arcsin x)} =\frac{-\frac{55x^7}{1008}+\frac{107x^7}{5040}+O(x^9)}{-\frac{341x^7}{5040}+\frac{173x^7}{5040}+O(x^9)}=\frac{-168+O(x^2)}{-168+O(x^2)}\to 1$$

user
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