I understand that Multinomial is a generalization of Binomial but Binomial is $n \choose k$ (or combinations) and Multinomial is just like $\frac{n!}{n_1!n_2!n_3!} $ (which is Permutation)
Am I right?
Asked
Active
Viewed 1,085 times
1
-
with a bad joke, you are left. Actually, I did not get your question. – mesel Jun 11 '14 at 11:04
1 Answers
2
Am I right?
Apparently, but only when it comes to partial permutations of multisets. Note that other European languages use the word ‘permutation’ simply as a synonym for $n!$, whereas ‘partial’ ones are called ‘arrangements’, i.e., $P_n=n!$, $P_n^k=A_n^k=\dfrac{n!}{(n-k)!}$, and $C_n^k=\dfrac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}=\displaystyle{n\choose k}$, which can sometimes cause quite a great deal of confusion.
