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Hi: I already asked this question on the complex analysis tag but nobody answered it so then I found this complex-integration tag and was hoping that someone might be able to answer it here. It is below and thanks.

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I'm reading some notes I found on complex analysis on the internet. In the example, they prove that

$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \cos(x^2) = \int_{0}^{\infty} \sin(x^2) = \frac{\sqrt{2\pi}}{4}.$$

I understand a lot of the proof so I don't think that I need to write down all the steps. I will just provide what I think is necessary for readers to understand my lack of understanding.

The example starts off with

"We shall consider the analytic function $f(z) = e^{(iz^2)}$ over a contour C of the form of a circular wedge in the first quadrant. Then contour has three edges:

(1) a line segment of length R from the $0$ to the point $A$.=,

(2) from $A$ to $B$ over a circular arc of angle $\frac{\pi}{4}$ (so $B = R e^{i \pi/4})$ and

(3) from $B$ to $0$.

That make sense. Then the author breaks the integral into three pieces so that

$$\int_{C} f(z) dz = \int_{OA} f(z) dz + \int_{AB} f(z) dz + \int_{BO} f(z) dz = 0.$$

by cauchy's theorem. That makes sense too.

But then, when evaluating the third integral, the author has

$$\begin{align} I_{3}(R) &= \int_{BO} e^{(i z^2)} dz \\&= \int_{R}^{0} e^{-r^2} e^{i \pi/4} dr \\&= -e^{i \pi/4} \int_{0}^{R} e^{-r^2} dr. \end{align}$$

Then the author explains

" for $I_{3}(R) $ we used $ z = r e^{i \pi/4}, 0 \le r \le R; z^2 = r^2e^{i \pi/4}; dz = e^{i \pi/4} dr $ ".

So, given what was used for $I_{3}(R)$ , I don't see how that integral is obtained. I must be missing something but could someone spell out how the negative comes about ? In fact, I don't even see where the $e^{i \pi/4}$ part of $z^2$ went ? Basically, I don't follow the integral construction at all.

mark leeds
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1 Answers1

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There seems to be a misprint in the part which says what $z^2$ is supposed to be. Since $z=r{\rm e}^{{\rm i}\pi/4}$ on $BO$, you get that $$z^2=r^2{\rm e}^{{\rm i}\pi/2}={\rm i}r^2$$ and hence $f(z)={\rm e}^{-r^2}$.

Putting things together, just substitute ${\rm d}z={\rm e}^{{\rm i}\pi/4}{\rm d}r$ and remember that along the segment $BO$, the parameter $r$ will start at $R$ and decrease to $0$. The minus sign in the last expression for $I_3(R)$ comes from switching the direction and letting $r$ run from $0$ to $R$ instead.

  • aaah. that must be it !!!! thank you soooo much. I will mention this on the other tag because I'm sure people will want to know. or maybe the question was so confusing because of the typo that they didn't even try to figure it out. thanks again. – mark leeds Aug 01 '14 at 13:10