Let $V=\Bbb F^{m\times n}$ $T: V\to V$ , by $T(B)=P^{-1}BP$ , for any $B$ in $V$ , where $P$ is an invertible matrix. prove that if $A$ is an eigenvector of $T$, with eigenvalue $\lambda$ and $A$ is a diagonalizable matrix, then $\lambda=1$.
I know that $A$ and $\lambda A$ are similar, then they have the same eigenvalues. then if $a$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, $(\lambda*a)$ is an eigenvalue of $(\lambda A)$, I'm not sure that I can claim then $(\lambda*a)=a$, because we don't know they have same eigenvectors.
Thank you in advance.