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Let $K$ be a field and let $R$ be a $K$-algebra with unity which is finite dimensional as a $K$-vector space. Prove that $R$ has only finitely many prime ideals all of which are maximal. (Hint: Chinese remainder theorem)

My attempt: We have $R \simeq K^n$, for some $n$, as vector spaces. I claim that there are finitely many ideals of $K^n$. Let $I$ be an ideal of $K^n$ and $(a_1, a_2,...,a_n) \in I$. For every entry $a_i$, we have two choices, either $a_i=0$ or not. So we get $2^n$ many cases, and any case give a particular ideal of $K^n$ which are distinct from others.

Is my proof correct or am I missing some point? If it is true, how can we give a proof by using the Chinese remainder theorem? Thanks!

user26857
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Ergin Süer
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  • Are you perhaps missing some assumptions? As stated I think you can let $R=K[x,y]$ which is $2$-dimensional over $K$. However any irreducible polynomial $p(x)\in K[x]$ produces a prime ideal which is not maximal, since the quotient is $K[x]/(p(x))[y]$. – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 16:00
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    @AdamHughes perhaps the OP means finite-dimensional as a $K$-vector space? – vociferous_rutabaga Sep 04 '14 at 16:01
  • @Morgan O: of course, you must be right. That makes a whole lot more sense – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 16:08
  • I don't think there is a missing assumption because this was a question in a qualifying exam. – Ergin Süer Sep 04 '14 at 16:19
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    @ErginSuer it's not so much a missing assumption, just that "finite-dimensional $K$-algebra" is ambiguous. This could mean a finite-dimensional ring which is also a $K$-algebra, or a $K$-algebra which is finite dimensional as a $K$-module. As an aside, it seems to me that a healthy does of skepticism should be applied to even qual questions -- they are written by humans, after all. I have seen qualifying exam questions that ask the student to prove something false. – vociferous_rutabaga Sep 04 '14 at 16:28
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    @MorganO I know a qual where it was asked to find all groups of a certain order (I forget which). Standard fare. But early in the exam a professor comes in and says there are actually 5 such groups, but you only have to find 3 of them. They failed to realize the other two when writing the question, and finding them and showing they were distinct was way more involved and difficult. – zibadawa timmy Sep 04 '14 at 18:41
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    @ErginSuer Your attempt is obviously wrong: if $R$ is isomorphic to $K^n$ as $K$-vector spaces (and not as rings!) then how to use this for counting the ideals of $R$? – user26857 Sep 04 '14 at 19:40
  • @user26857 It should be K-algebra isomorphism. Right? – Ergin Süer Sep 04 '14 at 19:58
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    @ErginSuer Right. (But in your case it isn't.) – user26857 Sep 04 '14 at 19:59

5 Answers5

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A finite dimensional (commutative or not) algebra over a field is an artinian ring, because it certainly satisfies the descending chain condition on left or right ideals.

Let $A$ be a commutative artinian ring and let $P$ be a prime ideal. Then $A/P$ is an artinian domain, which is a field: if $D$ is an artinian domain, consider $d\in D$ and the chain of ideal $(d)\supseteq(d^2)\supseteq\dots\supseteq(d^n)\supseteq\dotsb$. This chain stabilizes, so $(d^n)=(d^{n+1})$ for some $n$, which means that $d^n=td^{n+1}$. Since $D$ is a domain, $1=td$ or $d=0$. Therefore all prime ideals of $A$ are maximal.

Consider now a minimal element in the family of products of finitely many maximal ideals, let it be $M_1\cdots M_k$. If $M$ is a maximal ideal, then $$ MM_1\cdots M_k\subseteq M_1\cdots M_k $$ so, by minimality, $MM_1\cdots M_k=M_1\cdots M_k$ and $$ M_1\cdots M_k\subseteq M $$ Since $M$ is prime, it follows that $M_i\subseteq M$, for some $i=1,\dots,k$; therefore $M_i=M$.

Here we don't use any general fact about artinian rings, just that any nonempty set of ideals has a minimal element (which is general theory of lattices). The Chinese remainder theorem can be used to get an upper bound on the number of maximal ideals; let $M_1,\dots,M_k$ be the set of (pairwise distinct) maximal ideals; then the Jacobson radical $J(A)=M_1\cap\cdots\cap M_k=M_1\cdots M_k$ by coprimality; so $$ A/J(A)\cong A/M_1\times\cdots\times A/M_k $$ by the CRT. If $A$ is a finite dimensional $K$-algebra, then $k\le\dim_K A/J(A)\le\dim_K A$. The upper bound can be reached: the product algebra $K^n$ has exactly $n$ maximal ideals.

user26857
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egreg
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  • @Mohan In a right artinian ring, every non empty family of right ideals has a minimal element (it's equivalent to the descending chain condition). A finite dimensional algebra over a field is both left and right artinian. – egreg Aug 28 '16 at 14:45
  • How did you conclude $M_i=M$ from $M_i\subseteq M$ for some $i=1,...,k$? – Bach Dec 17 '19 at 06:04
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    @Bach Since $M$ is maximal, it is prime; thus $IJ\subseteq M$ implies either $I\subseteq M$ or $J\subseteq M$. By induction, $M_1M_2\dots M_k\subseteq M$ implies $M_i\subseteq M$, for some $i$. Now both $M_i$ and $M$ are maximal ideals, so they're equal. – egreg Dec 17 '19 at 07:43
  • @egreg, you said that ".......so, by minimality, $MM_1\cdots M_k=M_1\cdots M_k$ and $ M_1\cdots M_k\subseteq M $ but what was the use of "$MM_1\cdots M_k=M_1\cdots M_k$ " it's trivial that "$M_1 M_2....M_k \subset M$" by minimality of $M_1 M_2...M_k$. I cannot understand why you wanted to show $MM_1\cdots M_k=M_1\cdots M_k$ – permutation_matrix Dec 28 '22 at 08:22
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    @permutation_matrix Let's try in a slightly different way. Take a minimal element $I$ in the set $\mathcal{P}$ of all products of finitely many maximal ideals; if $M$ is a maximal ideal, then $MI\in\mathcal{P}$ and $MI\subseteq I$. By minimality of $I$, we get $MI=I$ and therefore $I\subseteq M$, which is what we need, because $I=M_1\dotsm M_k$ and we get that $M_i\subseteq M$ for some $i$. – egreg Dec 28 '22 at 08:39
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Now that the mild ambiguity is resolved, let's address the question.

We begin by showing maximality. Consider a non-trivial prime ideal, $\mathfrak{p}$ of $R$. If $x\not\in\mathfrak{p}$ is fixed, then considering the $\mod \mathfrak{p}$ reductions of $1, x,\ldots, x^{\dim_K(R)}=x^m$ we have a linear dependence by finite dimensionality of $R$. And since $R/\mathfrak{p}$ is an integral domain, we know that this algebraic relation

$$c_0+c_1x+\ldots +c_mx^m$$

has $c_0\ne 0$, otherwise $\overline{x}\in R/\mathfrak{p}$ would be a zero divisor, so that the reduction, $\overline{1}\in R/\mathfrak{p}$ satisfies

$$\overline{1}=c_0^{-1}(-c_m\overline{x}^m-\ldots-c_1\overline{x})$$

verifying the existence of an inverse for $x\mod \mathfrak{p}$, since

$$\overline{1}=\overline{x}\cdot\bigg(-c_0^{-1}(c_m\overline{x}^{m-1}+c_{m-1}\overline{x}^{m-2}+\ldots + c_2\overline{x}+c_1)\bigg)$$


If there are no more than $\dim_K(R)$ prime ideals we are done, so assume otherwise. Then we take a collection, $\{\mathfrak{p}_1,\ldots,\mathfrak{p}_n\}$, of $n=\dim_K(R)+1$ distinct prime ideals of $R$. Since all prime ideals are maximal, $\mathfrak{p}_i+\mathfrak{p}_j=R$ when $i\ne j$. Then by the CRT we can find $x_1,\ldots, x_n$ such that

$$x_k\equiv\delta_{ik} \mod \mathfrak{p}_i,\quad 1\le k\le n$$

Necessarily the $x_i$ span the quotient $K$-algebra

$$R/(\mathfrak{p}_1\cdot\ldots\cdot\mathfrak{p}_n)\cong R/\mathfrak{p}_1\oplus\ldots\oplus R/\mathfrak{p}_n$$

treated as a vector space, which is of dimension at least $\dim_K(R)+1$, implying there is a surjective $K$-algebra homomorphism from $K^m\to K^{M}$ for some $m<M$. However algebra homomorphisms are also linear maps, which means we have a vector space of lower dimension surjecting onto one of higher dimension. Hence there are at most $\dim_K(R)$ prime ideals, i.e. finitely many.


Remarks ($1$)In fact any such system of congruences over the finitely many prime ideals has $\gcd(\{x_i\})=1$, i.e. the $x_i$ are coprime.

($2$) Really we could have stopped after solving the system of congruences, as it already implies that the $x_i$ are linearly independent over $K$. To see this we can assume, WLOG, that

$$x_1=\sum_{i=1}^{\dim_K(R)+1}r_ix_i$$

Then $x_1\in \left(x_2,\ldots, x_{\dim_K(R)+1}\right)$, since the latter is an algebra ideal, a contradiction to the congruences.

Adam Hughes
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  • Doesn't CRT require maximality, or at least coprimality? If so, you might have to do these two steps in reverse order. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 21:14
  • Good point. (CRT indeed requires coprimality) – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 21:20
  • There is no reason to say that the elements $x_i$ are coprime (not to mention that this notion should not be used outside a UFD) - what you need (indeed, what you actually use) is comaximality of the prime ideals. Also, referring to unknown quantities $m, M$ is unnecessary - the $K$-linear surjection $R \twoheadrightarrow \bigoplus_{i=1}^n R/p_i$ implies $n - 1 = \dim_K R \ge \sum_{i=1}^n \dim_K R/p_i \ge n$ – zcn Sep 05 '14 at 06:33
  • That's not true at all, coprime is perfectly reasonable in general rings, and has a standard definition, namely $I+J=R$, though some call this "comaximal" as well, this is true. Having coprime elements similarly so, just by examining their associated ideals. Not all distinct prime ideals are coprime, but that's another story, and one can certainly make sense of coprime in non UFDs, any Dedekind domain certainly suffices. – Adam Hughes Sep 05 '14 at 06:45
  • @AdamHughes: My main point was not whether or not coprimeness for elements should be referred to (which was just an aside) - it was that the act of choosing elements $x_i$ is unnecessary (also, you may use the @ symbol to reply directly) – zcn Sep 05 '14 at 08:03
  • Moreover, it is certainly not the case that your choice of $x_i$ are pairwise coprime: e.g. $(x_1)+(x_2) \subseteq p_3 \ne R$. This may show you why it is the coprimeness of the ideals that is of importance, not of elements – zcn Sep 05 '14 at 08:27
  • @zcn I never said they were pairwise coprime, only coprime en masse, which they end up having to be once you find that there are only finitely many primes in your ring. This is the same spirit of the proof that a Dedekind domain with finitely many primes is a PID, which is done in the same way using the CRT and Krull dimension 1. And one needs to pick congruences in order to use the CRT (that's how that theorem works, it gives existence to choices), which is what the op asked for, unambiguously, in his question. – Adam Hughes Sep 05 '14 at 16:07
  • Why are there $\dim_KR+1$ distinct prime ideals? This is certainly not true in general. For example, $R$ could well be a field of very large dimension over $K$... – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Sep 05 '14 at 16:32
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez so that the chosen elements will be linearly dependent over $K$. The point is to prove finiteness, so I'm providing an upper bound on the possible number of prime ideals, though I should probably say "if there are no more than $\dim_K(R)$ primes, we're done, otherwise..." – Adam Hughes Sep 05 '14 at 16:36
  • It is always best to say what you are doin and not something else :-) Since you cannot in general take a set of $\dim_KR+1$ prime ideals, it is best not to do it! – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Sep 05 '14 at 16:37
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez yes, you're right. It was an oversight to not state it more explicitly. – Adam Hughes Sep 05 '14 at 16:38
  • Notice that everything that follows the word "Necessarily" in the last paragraph is not needed: the equation immediately preceeding that word implies at once that $x_1$, $\dots$, $x_{\dim_KR+1}$ are linearly independent over $K$, and this is of course impossible. – Mariano Suárez-Álvarez Sep 05 '14 at 16:38
  • @MarianoSuárez-Alvarez

    That one I realized earlier, but I opted for a slightly more extended discussion so that the op could more clearly recognize the full power of the CRT operating in his context (since the original post wanted it specifically, I figured he should get his money's worth seeing it), but I should and will add a note about this.

    – Adam Hughes Sep 05 '14 at 16:48
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Since $R$ is finitely generated as a $K$-module, $R$ is integral over $K$ and $R$ is finitely generated $K$-algebra. Hence $\dim R=0$ and by Hilbert basis theorem $R$ is Noetherian ring. Hence $R$ is an Artinian ring and the result follows.

user26857
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Another proof: first, note that a prime ideal always arises as the kernel of a map $R\to L$ to an algebraically closed field ($L=\overline{Q(R/P)}$). But $R$ is finite over $K$, so any map $R\to L$ factors: $R\to \overline{K} \to L$. We have only finitely many choices for where to send a generating set, hence finitely many prime ideals.

But we also have the fact that a finite-dimensional integral domain over a field must be a field itself (because multiplication by a nonzero element is injective, hence surjective). So the image of $R$ in $\overline{K}$ is always a field, i.e. every prime ideal of $R$ is maximal.

Andrew Dudzik
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  • And what about the ring $\mathbb{C}\oplus\mathbb{C}$, with pointwise addition and multiplication? – Marc Bogaerts Sep 04 '14 at 17:36
  • @Nimda I think I see your point: I'm not sure in what sense this ring is "algebraic" over $\mathbb{C}$. I think the proof works fine with finiteness instead, however—the image of $R$ in $L$ is a finite $K$-module, so is contained in $\overline{K}$. Let me know if you see any other problems. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 17:48
  • And if you take $K=\mathbb{F}_p$ and $R=K \oplus K$ then ${0}\oplus K$ is a maximal ideal, what is $L$ in this case?. – Marc Bogaerts Sep 04 '14 at 18:01
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    What do you mean by "$R$ is finite over $K$"? Finite dimensional? Finitely generated? Other? – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 19:00
  • @Nimda In this case we could set $L=K$, with $R\to L$ the projection onto the first coordinate. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:20
  • @AdamHughes Finite generally refers to finiteness as a module, in other words $R$ is finite-dimensional over $K$. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:21
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I have the impression that the underlying additive structure is that of a $K$-vector space. But can one conclude that $R=K^n$ (isn't the ring $\mathbb{F}_p\times \mathbb{F}_{p^2}$ also a $\mathbb{F}_p$-algebra?). In any case, $R$ is a direct sum of fields $\oplus^k_{i=1} F_i $, so every ideal is of the form $\oplus_{i\in S} F_i$ with $S\subseteq\{1,\ldots,k\}$, and the maximal ideals are those where $S=\{1,\ldots,i-1,i+1,\ldots,k\}$.

user26857
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  • Not so, let $R=\Bbb Q(\sqrt 2)$ which is only a direct sum of fields as a vector space, not as a ring. The op is considering only the vector space structure in his/her attempt. – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 17:09
  • @AdamHughes Isn't $\Bbb Q(\sqrt 2)$ a $1$ dimensional ring over itself as a field? – Marc Bogaerts Sep 04 '14 at 17:17
  • Yes, but not as a $\Bbb Q$-module. – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 17:26
  • @AdamHughes It is still a direct sum of fields, regardless what it is a module over. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 17:27
  • @you-sir-33433 Yes, but that doesn't help for the ideal structure. Ideals are different for, say $\Bbb Z\oplus\Bbb Z$ treated as a direct sum of rings, rather than $\Bbb Z[\sqrt{2}]$ which has the same$\Bbb Z$-module structure, but different ring structures. In particular, in the first one

    $$((1,0))={(a,0):a\in\Bbb Z}$$

    is an ideal of the first ring, but in the second, relative to the basis ${1,\sqrt{2}}$, $((1,0))=\Bbb Z[\sqrt{2}]$ is the whole ring.

    – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 19:56
  • @Nimda Your example of $\mathbb F_p$-algebra isn't a direct product of copies of $\mathbb F_p$? (Unless I've missed somehow what $\mathbb F_p^2$ means.) Moreover, if $R=K[X]/(X^2)$ then $\dim_KR=2$ and $R$ isn't a direct product of fields for simple reasons ($R$ is not reduced, for instance). – user26857 Sep 04 '14 at 20:11
  • @AdamHughes But we're not talking about general $\mathbb{Z}$-modules, we're talking about field extensions of $K$, all of which have only the trivial ideals. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:19
  • @user26857 I assume that $\mathbb{F}p \times \mathbb{F}{p^2}$ was intended, but you are right that this answer fails to take into account nilpotents. We can fix this problem by simply modding out by the nilradical at the first step, after which everything is correct. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:23
  • @you-sir-33433 I think we have a misunderstanding, as there are non field extensions of $K$ which are still finite (vector space) dimensional algebras over $K$. Nimda claims $R$ is a direct sum of fields, which is false, field means we are including the ring structure rather than just the vector space structure, which is all that can be concluded. – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 20:34
  • @AdamHughes See my last comment. Nimda's claim is true after we mod out by the nilradical, which does not affect the question. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:35
  • @you-sir-33433 But the nilradical of $\Bbb Z\oplus \Bbb Z$ as a direct sum of rings is still trivial, any $(a,b)\in \Bbb Z^2$ with one of $a$ or $b$ non-zero generates a copy of $\Bbb Z$ inside of the ring. Since $\Bbb Z$ is an integral domain, this means the nilradical is trivial, but there are still zero divisors. – Adam Hughes Sep 04 '14 at 20:40
  • @AdamHughes I'm not sure what your point is. Zero divisors are fine (without them, $R$ is a field, not just a product of fields), though $\mathbb{Z}\oplus\mathbb{Z}$ will not arise in this problem. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:41
  • @AdamHughes To be clear, the claim is that a commutative ring is a product of fields if and only if it is artinian and reduced. $\mathbb{Z}\oplus \mathbb{Z}$ is not artinian, but finite-dimensional algebras over a field are. – Andrew Dudzik Sep 04 '14 at 20:46