I think that this is a popular fallacy that GCH implies that every uncountable cardinal is of the form $2^\kappa$ for some $\kappa$. I think it does imply that for successor cardinals only. It cannot be true for all limits, right?
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1What a coincidence, I have came across this false belief only yesterday. Because of http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/963360/ – Martin Brandenburg Oct 09 '14 at 21:25
2 Answers
In fact, one can prove in ZFC that some infinite cardinals are not of form $2^\kappa$, regardless of whether the GCH holds or not. For example, $\aleph_\omega$ cannot be $2^\kappa$ for any $\kappa$, since it has cofinality $\omega$, and so $(\aleph_\omega)^\omega>\aleph_\omega$ by König's theorem, whereas $(2^\kappa)^\omega=2^{\kappa\cdot\omega}=2^\kappa$ for any infinite $\kappa$.
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Yes, but the question excluded the countable case anyway. Although the argument is the same. :-) – Asaf Karagila Oct 09 '14 at 21:23
Yes, you are right. But even more than that. Since $2^\kappa=\kappa^+$ for every infinite cardinal, it follows that there is no $\kappa$ such that $2^\kappa$ is a limit cardinal.
To see why, note that if $2^\kappa=\lambda$ then $\kappa<\lambda$, if $\lambda$ is a limit cardinal then $2^\kappa=\kappa^+<\lambda$ as well.
(If you look closely at this argument, you'll see that it shows that if $\delta$ is a limit ordinal, then $\beth_\delta$ is not $2^\kappa$ for any $\kappa$. And under $\sf GCH$ the definitions of $\aleph$ and $\beth$ coincide.)
If you want to talk about "most", then in some sense this show that most cardinals are not $2^\kappa$, since the limit cardinals make a closed and unbounded class in the ordinals (and in the cardinals). Therefore we can regard them as "full measure", in some sense.
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"Since $2^\kappa=\kappa^+$ for every infinite cardinal, it follows that there is no $\kappa$ such that $2^\kappa$ is a limit cardinal." You only give a one-line proof of this, but I'm surprised that "$\kappa^+$ is not a limit cardinal" needs any proof at all, I thought that was true by definition. Am I missing something? – bof Oct 09 '14 at 22:33
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You're not. I just explicated the "trivially" that was initially going to be there when I was typing that answer originally. :-) [Not to mention that this is really the proof for the $\beth$ argument, which is way cooler.] – Asaf Karagila Oct 09 '14 at 22:40