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Let $\mu$ be a continuous measure on $[0,1]$ (i.e. each individual point has $0$ measure). As usual, denote by $\hat\mu(n)=\int_0^1e^{2\pi inx}d\mu(x)$ the Fourier transform of $\mu$, and let $\lfloor x\rfloor$ denote the floor of $x\in\mathbb R$. Is it true that $$\lim_{N\to\infty}sup_{M\in\mathbb N}\frac1N\sum_{n=M}^{M+N}\left|\hat\mu\Big(\big\lfloor n^{3/2}\big\rfloor\Big)\right|=0~?$$

Observe that if $\mu$ is absolutely continuous, then the answer is yes by the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma.

If instead of $\hat\mu(\lfloor n^{3/2}\rfloor)$ we consider $\hat\mu(n)$, then the answer is again yes (it follows from Wiener's theorem).

If we don't take a supremum over all shifts of the interval $\{1,\dots,N\}$, then the result is again well known because the sequences $n\mapsto\lfloor n^{3/2}\rfloor x$ are uniformly distributed for any irrational $x$.

The motivation for this question comes from the fact that $$\lim_{N\to\infty}sup_{M\in\mathbb N}\frac1N\sum_{n=M}^{M+N}\left|\hat\mu\big(n^2\big)\right|=0.$$ This follows easily from the fact that the sequences $n\mapsto n^2 x$ are well distributed for every irrational $x$, but this is not the case for the sequences $n\mapsto\lfloor n^{3/2}\rfloor x$.

Joel Moreira
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1 Answers1

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Really, you have almost answered it yourself, just left the very final words out.

Take $M=4N^4$. Then $\lfloor (M+n)^{3/2}\rfloor=8N^6+3N^2n$ for $n=1,\dots,N$, so $\frac 1N\sum_{n=1}^N e^{-2\pi i \lfloor (M+n)^{3/2}\rfloor x}$ is $1$ when $x=q/N^2$ and nearly $1$ on a small open neighborhood $U_N$ of those points. Now take some very fast increasing sequence of $N$ so that $\cap_N U_N$ contains a Cantor-type set and put the measure on it. The exact formulae do not matter, of course. What mattered a bit was having long linear pieces of arbitrarily large slope, but even that wasn't crucial. As you noticed yourself, the (particular kind of) absence of good distribution was the key.

fedja
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  • Thanks for the answer but I didn't understand something: it seems to me that the intervals $U_N$ could shrink so that the intersection will be a single point at most. How do we guarantee we can fit a Cantor set in there? – Joel Moreira Sep 16 '16 at 01:22
  • Oh, never mind I see it now, each $U_N$ consists of $N^2$ intervals, not just one. – Joel Moreira Sep 16 '16 at 01:24