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The sequence defined by $a_0=a_1 =1$ and $$ a_n = \frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=0}^{n-1}a_i^2, \quad n > 1 $$ fails to be integer for the first time at $a_{44}$. Why??

You can verify the statement by computing the sequence mod 43 (see more commentary here (day 5, problem 3)). That's not a very satisfying answer though. Is there a good reason for this behavior?

j.c.
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1 Answers1

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Copying my explanation from https://mathoverflow.net/a/217894/25028

The recurrence formula can be rewritten as $$a_2=2,\qquad a_{n+1}=\frac{a_n\cdot (a_n+n-1)}n,\quad n\geq 2,$$ which somewhat justifies why $a_n$ remains integer for quite a while. It shows that $a_n$ accumulates most of the factors of the previous terms and gains some new ones. The division by $n$ happens to hit the existing factors up until $n=43$.

Another example of this kind is given by $$b_2=2,\qquad b_{n+1}=\frac{b_n\cdot (b_n+n+5)}n,\quad n\geq 2,$$ which remains integer for up to $n=59$.

ADDED. OEIS A292996 gives indices of first noninteger terms in similar sequences.

Some spin-off questions:

Max Alekseyev
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