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In February of this year, articles started popping up describing the results reported in this paper by Mahler et al: http://advances.sciencemag.org/content/2/2/e1501466.abstract

Taken from this article discussing the results, the following claims are related:

"Indeed, Steinberg and colleagues identified cases in which photon-1 begins on a trajectory from the lower slit, but then swerves upward into a trajectory that appears to be from the upper slit. Using a technique called quantum-state tomography, they were able to monitor the polarization of photon-2 during this swerve, and saw its value rotate from horizontal (indicating the lower slit) to vertical (indicating the upper slit). As a result, a measurement on photon-2 at the end of the trajectory gives the "wrong" slit."

While any theory that wants to be taken seriously as an alternative to Quantum Mechanics must agree with validated experimental predictions /results of QM (and indeed this study was done specifically to address predictions of BM that seemed at odds with QM), I'm having trouble seeing how the quoted series of measurements above can be reconciled with QM as I understand it.

Meaning:

A) My understanding of how QM would describe the above series of measurements is lacking (most likely)

or

B) the above series of measurements imply which-way knowledge while preserving interference can be demonstrated.

Which one of these seems to be the case, and can you help me view these results within the framework of classical QM (no pun intended)?

EDIT:

After reading the linked question marked duplicate, the answers do no address my specific question of how the authors claim to show which-way information while preserving interference is either erroneous, or in keeping with the validated postulates of QM. Being peer-reviewed, I'd assume they (and their reviewers) at least believe they are on somewhat stable ground to make these claims.

JPattarini
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  • Have a look at the duplicate http://physics.stackexchange.com/q/241239/ answer . Mathematics is mathematics. It has been shown that as far as calculational predictions go the mathamatics of probabilistic quantum mechanics and Bohmian mechanics give the same results for non relativistic situations. Bohmian has no relativistic equivalent. – anna v Mar 07 '16 at 06:58
  • @annav Thanks and apologies - I did a search and didn't see this paper had already been brought up for discussion, I'll direct my comments/follow-ups over there – JPattarini Mar 07 '16 at 10:45
  • @annav After reading, it appears the answer there does not appear to address my query. Edited for clarity. – JPattarini Mar 07 '16 at 10:57
  • The answer in the duplicate says clearly that it is a different mathematical framework which describes the same data in all cases of probabilistic quantum mechanics. This should satisfy you that what they measure can also be interpreted with the mathematics of probanilistic quantum mechanics. It is not erroneous but a more complicated mathematical interpretation of the same data. – anna v Mar 07 '16 at 12:55

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