I'm following Professor R. Shankar's Fundamentals of Physics course on YouTube.
There I saw him doing manipulations of Calculus I never saw before.
Here it goes, $$\newcommand\deriv[2]{\frac{\mathrm d #1}{\mathrm d #2}} \deriv{v_t}{t}=a$$ $$\implies v_t \newcommand\deriv[2]{\frac{\mathrm d #1}{\mathrm d #2}} \deriv{v_t}{t}=a v_t$$ $$\implies \newcommand\deriv[2]{\frac{\mathrm d #1}{\mathrm d #2}} \deriv{\dfrac{{v_t}^2}{2}}{t}=a \newcommand\deriv[2]{\frac{\mathrm d #1}{\mathrm d #2}} \deriv{x_t}{t}$$
Then he cancels out $\mathrm dt$ from both sides and obtains, $\mathrm d(\dfrac{{v_t}^2}{2})=a\cdot \mathrm d(x_t)$
And proceeds by, $\dfrac{1}{2} \mathrm d({v_t}^2)=a\cdot \mathrm d(x_t)$
Thus deriving, $\dfrac{1}{2} ({v_t}^2-{v_0}^2)=a (x_t-x_0)$ $\implies {v_t}^2-{v_0}^2=2a(x_t-x_0)$
So, ${v_t}^2={v_0}^2+2a(x_t-x_0)$
How do you justify his calculations using Mathematical rigour?
Is it legitimate to cancel out $\mathrm dt$ from both sides? Aren't we considering $\newcommand\deriv[2]{\frac{\mathrm d #1}{\mathrm d #2}} \deriv{v_t}{t}$ as a fraction then? And Isn't there a better way of deriving this using Integral calculus?