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I am reading Di Francesco's "Conformal Field Theory" and in page 95 he defines a conformal transformation as a mapping $x \mapsto x'$ such that the metric is invariant up to scale:

$$g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = \Lambda(x) g_{\mu \nu} (x).$$

On the other hand we know from GR that under any coordinate transformation the metric changes as

$$ g_{\mu \nu} (x) \mapsto g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} .$$

I feel like there is a notation problem (inconsistency) in these formulas, or maybe I am mixing active and passive coordinate transformations. For instance, if we consider a simple rotation (which is of course a conformal transformation with no rescaling, i.e. $\Lambda(x)=1$) then from the first formula we see that $g'_{\mu \nu}(x') = g_{\mu \nu} (x)$, whereas from the second formula we get something more complicated. Where is the flaw?

In the "String theory" lecture notes by David Tong the same definition of conformal transformation is given. Then he says:

A transformation of the form (4.1) has a diferent interpretation depending on whether we are considering a fixed background metric $g_{\mu \nu}$, or a dynamical background metric. When the metric is dynamical, the transformation is a diffeomorphism; this is a gauge symmetry. When the background is fixed, the transformation should be thought of as an honest, physical symmetry, taking the point $x$ to point $x'$. This is now a global symmetry with the corresponding conserved currents.

I think it has to do with my question, but I don't fully understand it...

MBolin
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    Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/38138/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/226464/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Mar 28 '19 at 17:48
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    I feel my question is not fully answered there. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 17:54
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    The actual definition of a conformal transformation is a mess. By my count, the usual references use at least 5 totally different definitions interchangeably, so you're right to be annoyed. I thought the top answer to the second question Qmechanic linked was good. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 17:56

3 Answers3

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OK I think I know what is going on. It's all about primes. Consider an active spacetime transformation:

$$ x^{\mu} \mapsto x'^{\mu}(x) \, ,$$

$$g_{\mu \nu} (x) \mapsto g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} \, .$$

(the transformation of the metric tensor follows from the fact that it is a rank 2 tensor). With this notation both Di Francesco and David Tong are wrong (as far as I understand). The GR book by Zee on the other hand writes it properly. First of all consider an isometry. This is an spacetime transformation as before that leaves the metric invariant, meaning

$$ g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} = g_{\mu \nu} (x') \, .$$

(watch the primes). On the other hand a conformal transformation is a transformation that satisfies a weaker condition: it leaves the metric invariant up to scale, meaning

$$ g'_{\mu \nu} (x') = g_{\alpha \beta} (x) \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} = \Omega^2(x')g_{\mu \nu} (x') \, .$$

Now there should be no inconsistency. Di Francesco's definition was wrong (according to this convention/notation/understanding) because it compared the metric before and after the transformation at different points, and you have to compare them at the same point.

MBolin
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  • Did you check what equation do you get by imposing invariance under a small transformation? I mean, if you use your definition do you get the covariantized Killing equation $\nabla_{(a}v_{b)} = \nabla^cv_c,g_{ab}$? – MannyC Mar 28 '19 at 23:10
  • Yes, I get $\nabla_{\mu} v_{\nu} + \nabla_{\nu} v_{\mu} = \frac{2}{d} (\nabla \cdot v ) g_{\mu \nu}$. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 23:32
  • Instead if you use the other one there are some pieces missing I imagine? This is very weird... – MannyC Mar 28 '19 at 23:38
  • Yes, there are missing pieces and it is logical. Try it. From Di Francesco's definition, for a change of coordinates to be a conformal transformation you should have something like $\frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} = \Omega^2(x) \delta^{\alpha}{\mu} \delta^{\beta}{\nu}$, which doesn't seem like a conformal transformation in general. Take a look at Zee. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 23:40
  • I don't think Tong is wrong here or that he is contradicting Zee. A general diffeomorphism is not an isometry and for diffeomorphisms, Tong's convention is perfectly fine. It is just that Tong is describing diffeomorphisms and not isometries. Correct me if I am missing something. I agree that the convention for conformal transformation in the Yellow Book seems wrong. (Deleted an earlier comment because I had lumped together Tong's notes and the Yellow Book.) –  Nov 17 '20 at 12:57
  • Well @DvijD.C., maybe saying that they're wrong is too much. Of course the idea is not wrong, but they are not precise with the primes on the coordinates. In this sense, I said the definition which appears in the Yellow Book as well as in Tong's notes is wrong (I didn't mean the cited text by Tong is wrong, just his formula). – MBolin Nov 17 '20 at 13:00
  • Ah no, I didn't mean to say that you were claiming that they were wrong more broadly. But no, I think the primes are correct in Tong's text because he is describing diffeomorphism. How would you distinguish a diffeomorphism from an isometry? In my understanding, that difference is precisely the difference between Tong's formula (which is for diffeomorphism) and Zee's formula (which is for isometry). –  Nov 17 '20 at 13:02
  • @DvijD.C. both Yellow's ($g_{\mu \nu}'(x') = \Lambda(x) g_{\mu \nu}(x)$)and Tong's ($g_{\alpha \beta}(x) \rightarrow \Omega^2(x) g_{\alpha \beta}(x)$) definitions of conformal transformations are equivalent, and I think they are wrong because they compare the metric at different spacetimes points $x$ and $x'$, which I think is nonsense. I introduced diffeomorphisms and isometries, as done by Zee in a rigourous way, to show how I think the definition of conf trans should be. – MBolin Nov 17 '20 at 13:08
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    Damn it, I thought the second block-quoted expression for diffeomorphism in your question to be from Tong which is what I was defending (while thinking that you had quoted it from Tong because I had misread). Yes, now I have no disagreements. Thanks for the responses and for providing a nice addition to my PSE bookmarks ;) –  Nov 17 '20 at 13:12
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I'm a mathematician, not a physicist, so I learned all of these ideas with different notation, but I think I understand what might be confusing you.

Conformal transformations are indeed a special kind of diffeomorphism, and a rotation (say in the plane with the usual metric) is indeed conformal, so the two formulas you listed had better agree in this case.

But in fact, if your manifold is $\mathbb{R}^2$, your metric is the usual one ($g_{\mu\nu}$ is the identity matrix at every $x$), and your coordinate change is a rotation, the second formula you listed will show you that the metric looks unchanged in the new coordinates. (This is not a coincidence: preserving this metric is exactly the property that makes rotations special in the first place!) That is, there is no conflict between the two formulas here, it's just that seeing it involves a bit of computation.

Working this out is a very good exercise and I don't think you'd gain much from me typing it all out here. A hint that might help you get oriented is that, since rotations are linear in the coordinate system we've chosen, the Jacobian matrix at every point is the same as the matrix for the rotation itself.

  • You are right, but I think that is not saying anything. Notice that for a simple metric like Euclidean metric, which doesn't depend on position, the formula for the transformation of the metric $g'{\mu \nu}(x') = \frac{\partial x^{\alpha}}{\partial x'^{\mu}} \frac{\partial x^{\beta}}{\partial x'^{\nu}} g{\alpha \beta} (x)$ and the equation for an isometry $g'{\mu \nu}(x') = g{\mu \nu}(x') $ look the same. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 18:42
  • Your answer indeed gives one of the five definitions of the phrase “conformal transformation”. But it isn’t the one that CFT is actually about. Your definition makes conformal invariance just a subset of diffeomorphism invariance. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 18:43
  • This is definitely our (i.e. physicists’) fault. We stole a word from math and used it to mean several different things, and the notation conventionally used is so ambiguous one can never tell between them. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 18:44
  • @knzhou: That's unfortunate! But it does seem like the definition I had in mind writing this is the one that the original question used in the first formula. Can you explain the discrepancy more clearly? I certainly don't want to contribute further to the confusion, so this answer ought to be edited if it's currently doing that. – Nicolas Ford Mar 28 '19 at 19:28
  • @MBolin: As I said in the last comment there may be a difference in the definitions that I'm not aware of, but it's worth pointing out that I think what you just said is not strictly true. There are certainly even linear transformations on the plane that are not conformal (and therefore not isometries). An example is multiplying the $x$ coordinate by 2, that is, $\begin{pmatrix}2&0\0&1\end{pmatrix}$. – Nicolas Ford Mar 28 '19 at 19:31
  • @NicolasFord: sorry, there may be a difference in which definitions? – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 19:32
  • @MBolin: In the definition of "conformal" that I am familiar with from mathematics and the one that physicists use, which I have just learned in the last hour might be different, although I'm not sure how. But regardless, I believe that what you wrote in your question is what I thought "conformal" meant before this conversation. – Nicolas Ford Mar 28 '19 at 19:34
  • I think I don't know the mathematical definition. What I said about the Euclidean metric is that it is just a very particular example. From what I understand, conformal transformations should be a subset of diffeomorphisms, and you can see that this is not the case in general (for any metric) by taking the example of a rotation. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 19:39
  • The definition I have in mind is that a conformal transformation is a diffeomorphism which preserves the metric up to scale, which I think is the same as the first sentence of your question. Rotations in the plane with the Euclidean metric is indeed a very particular example; it's just the example I understood you to be asking about. Certainly (a) not every conformal transformation is of this form, and (b) it's possible to put a metric on the plane for which rotations are not conformal. If this isn't what you're asking, then I'm afraid I still don't understand the question. – Nicolas Ford Mar 28 '19 at 19:46
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    @NicolasFord A conformal transformation (in the sense of CFT) is a two-step process: first apply a diffeomorphism as you said, then apply an actual rescaling of the metric to cancel the $\Lambda$ factor. (This rescaling is allowed to also rescale the values of other fields.) At the end of the day, $g_{\mu\nu}'(x') = g_{\mu\nu}(x)$. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 20:00
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    @NicolasFord You're right that the formula as stated means what you said. However, this isn't the definition that is actually used later in the book. For example, even 5 pages later the book begins to speak of how to decide which classical field theories are conformally invariant. This doesn't make any sense if conformal transformations are a subset of diffeomorphisms, because just about all reasonable theories are diffeomorphism invariant, so knowing a theory is a CFT would be just about useless. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 20:02
  • @knzhou: Thanks, that all makes sense, and it at least clears up everything for me. This really is not a good use of terminology! I have a feeling that this isn't exactly the crux of the original questioner's confusion, though; they seem to be stuck somewhere before this point. – Nicolas Ford Mar 28 '19 at 20:09
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    @NicolasFord Yes, I agree 100%, the OP has a different issue. I'm just pointing out this other issue because it's a pet peeve of mine, and because otherwise OP would encounter a nasty surprise in a few pages and get confused all over again. – knzhou Mar 28 '19 at 20:10
  • @NicolasFord, I think the reason your example is trivial because: 1) Rotations are an isometry of Euclidean metric and 2) Euclidean metric is independent of the point. So for your example, the definitions work. – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 23:50
  • @knzhou I am a bit confused. Why diffeomorphisms are a symmetry of all resonable theories? – MBolin Mar 28 '19 at 23:52
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I deleted my previous answer because I was very confused when I wrote it. I realized that I just wanted to stress MBolin's answer.

From a differential geometric point of view, an active transformation of space(time) is a diffeomorphism $\phi:M\rightarrow M$. Given a curve $\gamma$ with initial velocity $X=\dot{\gamma}(0)$ at $\gamma(0)$, we can define the new transformed curve $\phi\circ\gamma$ which has velocity $\phi_{*,\gamma(0)}X$ at the transformed initial point $\phi(\gamma(0))$. This is the push-forward of the vector $X$. The conformal condition is then just that the angles between two vectors and their push-forwards coincide. In other words, that there is a function $\Lambda:M\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$ such that for any two vectors $X$ and $Y$ at $p$ we have $$g_{\phi(p)}(\phi_{*,p}X,\phi_{*,p}Y)=\Lambda(p) g_p(X,Y).$$ The left hand side can be thought of as the pull-back of the metric so this condition is at times written as $\phi^*g=\Lambda g$, but this is just a more condensed version of the statement above .

In a coordinate system $x$ defined on a chart containing both $p$ and its transformed point $\phi(p)$, we can write the equation above as $$\Lambda g_{\mu\nu}(x)=\frac{\partial x^\alpha\circ\phi}{\partial x^\mu}\frac{\partial x^\beta\circ\phi}{\partial x^\nu}g_{\alpha\beta}(x)\circ\phi.$$ In here I have used the physicists notation of writing $g_{\mu\nu}(x)$ for the composition $g_{\mu\nu}\circ x$. In here my convention is that $$g_{\mu\nu}(x(p))=g_p\left(\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}\right)_p,\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^\nu}\right)_p\right)$$

There is a parallel (although local) discussion on can make from the passive point of view. In here one is instead replacing the coordinates $x$ by a new system $x':=x\circ\phi^{-1}$ (thinking of active vs. passive rotations clarifies why this is the correct coordinates to choose). Then the trick for relating these two is to note that $$\frac{\partial x^\alpha\circ\phi}{\partial x^\mu}=\partial_\mu(x^\alpha\circ\phi\circ x^{-1})\circ x=\partial_\mu(x^\alpha\circ {x'}^{-1})\circ x'\circ\phi=\frac{\partial x^\alpha}{\partial x'^\mu}\circ\phi.$$ Then the conformal condition becomes $$\Lambda g_{\mu\nu}(x)=\left(\frac{\partial x^\alpha}{\partial x'^\mu}\frac{\partial x^\beta}{\partial x'^\nu}g_{\alpha\beta}(x)\right)\circ\phi.$$ We recognize that the term in parenthesis is just the metric in the new coordinates $g'_{\mu\nu}(x')$. Then we have $g'_{\mu\nu}(x')\circ\phi=g'_{\mu\nu}\circ x'\circ\phi=g'_{\mu\nu}\circ x\equiv g'_{\mu\nu}(x)$. We thus recover the statement as in Zee's book that the conformal condition is $$g'_{\mu\nu}(x)=\Lambda g_{\mu\nu}(x).$$

Ivan Burbano
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