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In terms of energy, the 3 dimensional MB Distribution is giving the probability for a particle to have an energy $E \geq E + dE$ is: $$f(E) = \frac{2}{\sqrt \pi} \cdot \bigg(\frac{1}{k_BT}\bigg)^{\frac{3}{2}} \cdot e^{-\frac{E}{k_BT}} \cdot \sqrt{E} \cdot dE$$ It is said that the 1 dimensional MB Distribution, giving the probability for a particle to have a certain energy in 1 degree of freedom, say $E_x \geq E_x + dE_x$, is: $$f(E_x) = \sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi E_x k_B T}} \cdot e^{-\frac{E_x}{k_BT}} \cdot dE_x$$ How is this 1D MB-Distribution derived from scratch and from the 3D MB Distribution?

Phy
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3 Answers3

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The MB distribution for the one degree of freedom in terms of momentum is: $$ w(p_x) dp_x = \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi m k_BT}} e^{-\frac{p_x^2}{2mk_BT}} dp_x $$ The relation between $p_x$ and $E$ is $$ E = \frac{p_x^2}{2m}\ \longleftrightarrow \ p_x(E) = \pm\sqrt{2mE}. $$ Probability "conservation" requires $$ f(E) dE = 2 w(p_x(E)) dp_x(E), $$ where $p_x = \sqrt{2mE}$ is chosen and $2$ factor accounts for two possibilities. From the last equation follows $$ f(E) = 2\ w(p_x(E))\ |p_x'(E)|. $$ This formula leads to the needed expression.

Gec
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  • Thanks. I got 2 questions. 1. Is the $2$ multiplier from the fact that each momentum value can have to directions? 2. Is it possible to derive the 1 dimension MB Distribution from scratch instead of just rewriting another existing formula in terms of energy? – Phy Jul 29 '19 at 21:39
  • @JohnnyGui My answers are 1. Yes, 2. I don't know a method to derive MBD in 1D from scratch. – Gec Jul 29 '19 at 22:00
  • Doesn't the $w(p_x)dp_x$ already take the 2 possible directions into account? If not, how would $w(p_x)dp_x$ then give correct probabilities in the first place? – Phy Jul 29 '19 at 22:03
  • I've been trying to write an answer satisfying the "from scratch" criterion but it's turning out to be very difficult without some experience with statistical mechanics; do you have any? There isn't a lot of prior knowledge involved, but there's quite a few integrals over phase space involved and I don't want to waste a lot of effort on something no-one will read. – Heatherfield Jul 29 '19 at 22:34
  • @Heatherfield This is exactly what I was asking for and what I'm trying to understand. I don't know how this phase space is derived and used to derive the 1D MB Distribution. The format for the 3D MB Distribution is $A \cdot e^{-\frac{E}{k_BT}} \cdot g(E)$ where $A$ is a constant that can be gotten through integration and normalizing it to 1 and $g(E)$ being the degeneracy. I'm doubting that the 1D format is merely this formula without $g(E)$. – Phy Jul 29 '19 at 23:28
  • @JohnnyGui, distribution of $p_x$ takes into account two possible directions. But correspondence between $p_x$ and $E$ is not one-to-one. $p_x$ and $-p_x$ both contribute to the probability of $E$. Hence the factor 2, when we relate $w(p_x)$ and $f(E)$. Without 2, the distribution $f(E)$ would give wrong full probability $1/2$. – Gec Jul 30 '19 at 06:18
  • @Gec Ah, this makes sense to me now. However, isn't $\frac{k_BT}{2}$ the average kinetic energy only in 1 direction of velocity? If so, shouldn't a degree of freedom take both directions into account such that the average energy of each degree of freedom should be $k_BT$? – Phy Aug 06 '19 at 22:25
  • @JohnnyGui, average kinetic energy $k_bT/2$ corresponds to the one spacial axis, both positive and negative directions are taken into account. – Gec Aug 08 '19 at 15:31
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Consider a canonical ensemble of a single particle in a 1D container of length $L$. According to the (classical) Boltzmann probability distribution, the probability density function for the state of the system being the microstate with position $x'$ and momentum $p'$ is $$ f_{x,p}(x',p') = \frac{e^{-\beta H(x', p')}}{\int\limits_0^L dx'' \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp'' e^{-\beta H(x'',p'')}}$$ where $ H(x, p) = p^2/2m $ is the energy of the particle with position $x$ and momentum $p$, and $\beta = 1/k_BT$. The marginal probablilty density function for the momentum is $$ f_p(p') = \int\limits_0^L dx' f_{x,p}(x',p') = \frac{\int\limits_0^L dx'e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}}{\int\limits_0^L dx'' \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp'' e^{-\beta p''^2/2m}} = \frac{L e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}}{L\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp'' e^{-\beta p''^2/2m}} = \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{2\pi m}} e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}. $$

To calculate the probability distribution function for the energy, note that the probability that the energy is less than $E'$ is given by

$$ \int\limits_0^E' dE'' f_E(E'') = \int\limits_{-\sqrt{2mE'}}^\sqrt{2mE'} dp' f_p(p'') = 2\int\limits_0^\sqrt{2mE'} dp' f_p(p'') . $$ Differentiating both sides and using the fundamental theorem of calculus, $$f_E(E') = 2 \sqrt{\frac{m}{2E'}} f_p(\sqrt{2mE'}) = \sqrt{\frac{2m}{E'}} \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{2\pi m}} e^{-\beta E'} = \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{\pi E'}} e^{-\beta E'}. $$

If you don't know where the Boltzmann probability distribution that I started with comes from, it is a standard result of statistical mechanics that should be found in any statistical mechanics textbook. If you want to ask about that, I think that probably deserves its own question.

If you wish to start with a particle free to move in a 3D container of volume $V$,

$$ f_{\vec{x},\vec{p}}(\vec{x}',\vec{p}') = \frac{e^{-\beta H(\vec{x}', \vec{p}')}}{\int\limits_V d^3\vec{x}'' \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty d^3\vec{p}'' e^{-\beta H(\vec{x}'',\vec{p}'')}}$$

$$ f_\vec{p}(\vec{p}') = \int\limits_V d^3\vec{x}' f_{\vec{x},\vec{p}}(\vec{x}',\vec{p}') = \frac{\int\limits_V d^3\vec{x}'e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}}{\int\limits_V d^3\vec{x}'' \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty d^3\vec{p}'' e^{-\beta p''^2/2m}} = \frac{V e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}}{V\int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty d^3\vec{p}'' e^{-\beta p''^2/2m}} = \frac{e^{-\beta p'^2/2m}}{\left( \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_x'' e^{-\beta p_x''^2/2m} \right) \left( \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_y'' e^{-\beta p_y''^2/2m} \right) \left( \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_z'' e^{-\beta p_z''^2/2m} \right)} = \left( \frac{\beta}{2\pi m} \right)^{3/2} e^{-\beta p'^2/2m} = \left( \frac{\beta}{2\pi m} \right)^{3/2} e^{-\beta (p_x'^2 + p_y'^2 + p_z'^2)^2/2m}. $$

This is the joint probability density function for all three components of the momentum. If you want the marginal probability density function for the $x$-component only, $$ f_{p_x}(p_x') = \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_y' \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_z' f_\vec{p}(\vec{p}') = \left( \frac{\beta}{2\pi m} \right)^{3/2} e^{-\beta p_x'^2/2m} \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_y' e^{-\beta p_y'^2/2m} \int\limits_{-\infty}^\infty dp_z' e^{-\beta p_z'^2/2m} = \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{2\pi m}} e^{-\beta p_x'^2/2m} $$ so you end up with the same distribution as the 1D case. If you want the distribution of the energy due to the motion along the $x$ direction (i.e. $E_x = p_x^2/2m$), the math to derive it is identical to the 1D case above, and you end up with $$f_{E_x}(E_x') = \sqrt{\frac{\beta}{\pi E_x'}} e^{-\beta E_x'}. $$

Puk
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  • Thanks a lot for this. Should it also be possible to write the 3D MB distribution in terms of velocity and from that deriving the one dimensional velocity term $v_x$ (using the formula for a volume $dv$ on a velocity sphere), and then writing it back in terms of energy, which would give your derived 1 dimensional MB distribution? – Phy Jul 30 '19 at 14:37
  • Please see my updated answer. – Puk Jul 30 '19 at 18:50
  • Thanks so much for your effort. One last question, the link here https://www.physics.byu.edu/faculty/christensen/Physics%20427/FTI/The%20Maxwellian%20One-Dimensional%20Velocity%20Distributions.htm also derived the 1D MB Distribution in terms of $v_x$. When rewriting this formula in terms of $E_x$, there is an extra factor of $\frac{1}{2}$ that comes up compared to your derivation. I'm amazed that, when written in terms of velocity, one does not have to take the possibility of 2 directions into account, but when it is rewritten in $E_x$, then it must be multiplied by $2$ to make sense. – Phy Jul 30 '19 at 23:10
  • I'm not sure what the question is. Are you saying that that the distribution of $E_x$ that follows from the link (which I don't see by the way) differs from the expression I gave by a factor of 2, or are you saying they explicitly multiply something by 2 while I don't? Note that this factor of 2 also appears in the second equation I gave for the probability of the energy being less than $E'$. It arises because $f_{p}{(p')$ is an even function being integrated over a symmetric interval. Physically, it is a consequence of the fact that there are two momenta corresponding to each positive energy. – Puk Jul 30 '19 at 23:53
  • You mean you don't see the link? I have rewritten the link's formula (which was in terms of $v_x$) in terms of $E_x$ myself and an extra factor of $\frac{1}{2}$ came up compared to your derivation. Is it because, in terms of $v_x$, the formula calculates the probability of that velocity only in 1 direction, while when converting it into $E_x$, you should also take the opposite possible direction into consideration and therefore the probability in terms of $E_x$ should be multiplied by a factor of $2$? – Phy Jul 31 '19 at 22:50
  • You can't simply substitute variables in a probability density function (PDF): this won't give you the correct PDF for the new variable in general. The typical thing to do to derive the correct PDF is to first express a probability as a function of quantities you want to relate, like energy and velocity. This will involve integrals of the PDFs of these quantities. You then differentiate to get an equation relating the PDFs. Ultimately, yes, the factor of 2 comes about because two velocity directions are possible for each energy. – Puk Jul 31 '19 at 23:18
  • But I did rewrite the velocity in terms of energy $v_x = \sqrt{2E_x/m}$ And for $dv = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2E_xm}} \cdot dE_x$. Isn't this the correct way to do it when rewriting PDF's in other terms, taking into account the factors of $2$ and $\frac{1}{2}$ depending on the number of possible directions? – Phy Aug 01 '19 at 01:06
  • There can be multiple correct ways of doing it. If you do all that and get the correct expression, fine. I was talking about a general approach for deriving a PDF, which I also used in my answer. This is often used in more difficult situations (higher dimensions etc.). If you are still getting the normalization factor wrong, without seeing your full work, there's little more I can say than "go through my answer again." – Puk Aug 01 '19 at 01:50
  • I checked it and I got it correct now. However, what I find weird though is the following. Isn't $\frac{k_BT}{2}$ the average energy in only one direction of velocity? If so, shouldn't each degree of freedom take both directions of its corresponding dimension into account such that the average energy of each degree of freedom would be $k_BT$? – Phy Aug 07 '19 at 02:13
  • $k_B T/2$ is the average kinetic energy associated with one dimension (in the 1D case the only dimension), not one direction. If you use $f_E$ to calculate the average energy, you get the correct value of $k_B T/2$. – Puk Aug 07 '19 at 02:20
  • I tried deducing the 1D MB Distribution from the 3D in my own way: If the 3D probability density $f(E)$ takes the number of quantum states $g(E)$ for a certain $E$ into account, then $\frac{f(E)}{g(E)} = P(E)$ should give the probability for a specific value combination of $|E_x|, |E_y|$ and $|E_z|$, of which their sum is $E$. If $P(E) = P(E_x) \cdot P(E_y) \cdot P(E_z)$, shouldn't $P(|E_x|) \cdot \int_0^\infty P(E_y) \cdot dE_y \cdot \int_0^\infty P(E_z) \cdot dE_z$ give the overall probability for a particle with a certain energy in the x-dimension $E_x$? – Phy Aug 10 '19 at 22:52
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Simply we can derive constant from one dimensional Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution as follows: Here, Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution is $$f(u)=Ae^{(-mu^2/2KT)}$$ let, $a = m/KT$

we know $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{(-au^2/2)}du = \sqrt{\frac{2\pi}{a}}=\sqrt{\frac{2\pi m KT}{m}}$

So, the normalized one dimensional Maxwellian distribution, $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(u)du= 1 $$ $$ A = \sqrt{\frac{m}{2\pi m KT}}$$

  • for $3$D cases, $A = (\frac{m}{2\pi m KT})^{3/2}$

Tasnim
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