0

In "ON THE EINSTEIN-PODOLSKI-ROSEN PARADOX" by Bell(1964), Eq(14) says: $$ \begin{align} P(\vec{a},\vec{b}) &=\int{d\lambda\rho(\lambda)A(\vec{a},\lambda)B(\vec{b},\lambda)}\\ &=-\int{d\lambda\rho(\lambda)A(\vec{a},\lambda)A(\vec{b},\lambda)} \end{align} $$ Why is $ B(\vec{b},\lambda)=-A(\vec{b},\lambda) $ ?

정수영
  • 13
  • 2
    Try giving more context to the question and explaining your current thoughts on the matter that confuses you, so that people can answer to you accurately – ohneVal Aug 27 '19 at 14:38

1 Answers1

0

If I remember that part correctly: The assumption is that Alice always measures the opposite spin direction as Bob, whatever the situation might be.

Nobody-Knows-I-am-a-Dog
  • 906