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This question seems to have been popping up here in a variety of forms that I feel don't seem to really get at (and get criticized for being vague or less than perfectly defined) what I believe the underlying issue is, so I am posting another here to ask what I believe is the well-defined gist thereof, as I have also had the same question, and it is this:

Is the C*-algebra of operators generated by $\hat{x}$ and $\hat{p}$, defined as any pair of operators that meet $$[\hat{x}, \hat{p}] = i\hbar$$ with $\hbar \ne 0$, operatorially complete for the Hilbert space of positional wave functions $L^2(\mathbb{R})$, i.e. is every self-adjoint operator on that space contained therein, and thus an observable aspect of a position-momentum moving particle?

If so, how can we prove it? If not, what is a counterexample operator?

NOTE: It has been pointed out that this still doesn't quite nail it. The accepted answer, though, contains a correction that seems to make sense: if we consider the algebra of all observables that are bounded functions of $x$ and $p$, such as "clamping" $x$ or $p$ to each finite interval, and thus "covering" the infinite range of both.

DanielC
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    Do you literally mean $\hat x$ and $\hat p$? These are not bounded operators, and so not members of a $C^*$ algebra. Operators $\hat O$ in such an algebra must be bounded in the operator norm: $|\hat O|<\infty$. – mike stone Dec 03 '20 at 18:41
  • @mike stone: Hmm. I guess this doesn't work, then, as phrased. – The_Sympathizer Dec 03 '20 at 19:07
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    He is referring to the special $C^$ algebra provided by the Von Neumann algebra generated* by those selfadjoint operators. That is the strong closure of the *-algebra jointly generated by the spectral measures of the operators. Or using one of the various equivalent definitions as the commutant of the commutant of the bounded operators properly commuting with $x$ and $p$..Or also using the bounded functions... – Valter Moretti Dec 03 '20 at 19:10
  • @Valter Moretti's 's answer points out that we should use bounded functions of $x$ and $p$, such as $e^{i\alpha \hat x}$ for which $| e^{i\alpha \hat x}|=1$. – mike stone Dec 03 '20 at 19:11
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    It works be sure :) – Valter Moretti Dec 03 '20 at 19:11
  • @mike stone : yeah, that seems like it likely fixes it. As one is then effectively breaking up the infinite range into an infinite number of finite ranges. – The_Sympathizer Dec 03 '20 at 19:14
  • Do you really mean $L^2(\mathbb C)$, that is you use the so-called Bargmann representation of the CCR? – DanielC Dec 03 '20 at 19:33
  • Sorry, prof. It was meant at our questioner @The_Sympathizer. – DanielC Dec 03 '20 at 20:22

2 Answers2

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The algebra includes all operators. If a bounded operator $A$ commutes with (the spectral measure of) $x$, then it commutes with the unitary group generated by it. If $A$ also commutes with (the spectral measure of) $p$, then it must eventually commute with the whole Weyl algebra on $L^2(R)$ which is known to be irreducible. Hence $A=cI$ for any complex $c$, in view of Schur lemma. The Von Neumann algebra generated by $x$ and $p$ is the commutant of the found operators by definition, i.e., the full algebra of bounded operators in the Hilbert space.

As a consequence, every bounded operator can be obtained as the limit in the strong operator topology of polynomials of bounded functions of $x$ and $p$ separately.

I guess that this last statement is the one you were looking for...

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The notation $C^*$ used in the title of the questions refers to a type of topological algebra unsuited for coordinate and momentum in $L^2 (\mathbb R)$. Such an algebra is made up of bounded operators, while $x$ and $p_x$ aren’t. There are, however, two possibilities to make sense of this question:

  1. Transform the operators $x$ and $p_x$ into bounded operators on a dense subset of $ L^2 (\mathbb R) $.
  2. Replace the $C^*$ algebra with an $O^*$-algebra which is perfectly possible, because such an $O^*$-algebra on $L^2 (\mathbb R)$ can be defined because the Schwartz test function space $\mathcal S (\mathbb R) $ is both invariant for the two operators and dense everywhere in $L^2 (\mathbb R)$ (the operators are essentially self-adjoint as operators from $\mathcal S (\mathbb R) $ to $L^2 (\mathbb R)$ under the $L^2 (\mathbb R)$ topology).

Possibility #1 is the start of the so-called rigged Hilbert space formulation of Quantum Mechanics, in the sense in which the norm topology of $L^2 (\mathbb R)$ on such a dense subset is replaced by a stronger topology induced by a countable family of semi-norms. If the dense subset is chosen (again) to be the Schwartz test function space, then the RHS is $\mathcal S (\mathbb R) \subset L^2 (\mathbb R) \subset \mathcal S^\times (\mathbb R) $ and the seminorms on $\mathcal S $ are (up to equivalence):

$$ ||\phi||_p = \mbox{sup}_{k,q\leq p} \left|x^k \frac{\partial^q \phi(x)}{\partial x^q}\right|, ~ p = 0,1,2,... $$

So $x$ and $p_x$ (as initially an irreducbile set) become bounded self-adjoint operators on $\mathcal S (\mathbb R) $ and from here any other operators which can be written as (properly symmetrized) polynomial functions in the two variables $x$ and $p_x$ remain bounded everywhere self-adjoint operators on $\mathcal S (\mathbb R) $. Such an operator could be the Hamiltonian of a free particle in 1D or of a harmonic oscilator in 1D or any powers of it.

Possibility #2 is clearly now equivalent to Possibility #1, because the Schwartz space and a representation of the abstract Weyl-algebra on it (such as the Schrödinger representation) provide an example of an $O^*$-algebra. This $O^*$-algebra can be enlarged by adding any (again properly symmetrized) polynomial function of $x$ and $p_x$. So, if the question in the title is phrased: „Is there a self-adjoint operator on $L^2 (\mathbb R) $ outside of the $O^*$-algebra generated by $x$ and $p_x$?”, I would say: „No, but I would rather use $\mathcal S (\mathbb R)$ in phrasing of the question, because the full Hilbert space is too big for the $O^*$-algebra” (and ironically too small to solve the spectral equation of either of the two operators).

DanielC
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  • That whole bounded operator business really trips stuff up :( I think the O-algebra would be what we're after. Since you say "the full Hilbert space is too big for the O-algebra", then that suggests that in fact there are operators that are outside that, no? – The_Sympathizer Dec 05 '20 at 21:32
  • No, there are most operators whose maximal domain is not the entire Hilbert space, as a consequence of the Hellinger-Töplitz theorem. – DanielC Dec 05 '20 at 21:34