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I don't fully understand the heisenberg uncertainty theory. Everything I don't know has transformed the theory into something i just don't understand one hundred percent. So my question is, Is there a theory that sets out to explain the Heisenberg uncertainty theory with clarity in a way that makes sense to a layman?

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    Nothing mystical about the HUP at all. – Gert Nov 21 '21 at 23:16
  • @Gert Yes it is, for it is an unexplained phenomenon that sets to explain other phenomena such as virtual particles and other things of that nature things like this. I say unexplained because to my knowledge It's just a law as fundamental as space and time and I don't see this to be true. – no name the astronaut Nov 21 '21 at 23:29
  • It is a powerful law and there are many explanations and experimental verifications of the law. See: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/24116/heisenberg-uncertainty-principle-scientific-proof – Alwin Nov 21 '21 at 23:34
  • It's only unexplained in the sense that everything in physics is unexplained. – Connor Behan Nov 21 '21 at 23:36
  • @Connor Behan that doesn't shed any light on the problem im facing. – no name the astronaut Nov 21 '21 at 23:39
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    The link provided by J.G. gives the full derivation of the HUP. It doesn't get more fundamental than that. But of course you didn't read it, which is why you cackle about mysticism. You're 100 % wrong on that. – Gert Nov 21 '21 at 23:57
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    Once in a while a science-denier visits us. Well, when someone insists the sky is pink, not blue, there's really not much the reality-based community can do about that... – Gert Nov 22 '21 at 00:05
  • @Gert of course i looked at it Im very involved in this discussion except for the fact that i don't understand the maths language. But in no way does it show what causes it what is the reason for the rules existence and i'm not questioning rather it exist or not i don't know where you people would even derive that from the question when it is directly correlated to the inner workings of the theory itself not rather it's real or not. So the question is bad i have no answer and this feels like a massive waste. – no name the astronaut Nov 22 '21 at 00:10
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    Yes, you sure have penned a lot of nonsensical gobbledigook (in your question and comments alike) and wasted quite a bit of time. The HUP is derived mathematically from parts of QM math, namely commutators. That origin is only understandable to those who are math initiated. – Gert Nov 22 '21 at 00:22
  • @Gert your comment may be accurate but as written it’s a little harsh… – ZeroTheHero Nov 22 '21 at 01:51
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    I downvoted and VTC because this isn’t really about HUP but rather whether or not it “makes sense” in the opinion of the OP, which is highly subjective given not definition of “makes sense” has been supplied. – ZeroTheHero Nov 22 '21 at 01:55
  • @nonametheastronaut the HUP explanation of virtual particle is seriously outdated, and should not be taken too seriously. – JEB Nov 22 '21 at 02:30

2 Answers2

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Is there a theory that sets out to explain the Heisenberg uncertainty theory in a way that makes sense?

To start with, the Heisenberg Uncertainty is a Principle , (HUP), not a theory. It was found while studying experimental data.

Principles, laws, postulates,... are statements assumed as extra axioms, in the theoretical models used in physics, so that from the mathematical models used to describe data, those solutions are picked up that fit data and are predictive.

Here is a history of how the HUP was defined to fit the quantum models of the time.

In this wiki article various mathematical ways are described of how the HUP is related to the theories, i.e. the simple HUP can be derived from the present mathematical physics theories, which should not be surprising as it was used in developing them. There is a lot of sense in the mathematics of it.

anna v
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Here is a simple way to think about this.

For very, very small particles, it is possible for them to behave as if they were waves. Imagine a wave spreading out on the surface of a body of water: as it spreads, it is nonlocalized and it becomes hard if not impossible to say exactly where the wave is at any instant in time. You can therefore account for the indeterminacy in a quantum particle's position as a consequence of its tendency to get its position smeared out a little because it happens to be acting like a wave, an explanation which is due to the physicist Richard Feynman. .

niels nielsen
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    That explains why $\sigma_x>0$, but what about $\sigma_x\sigma_p\ge\tfrac12\hbar$? – J.G. Nov 22 '21 at 06:12
  • @J.G. I suggest you have a look at feynman's exposition of this. If I can remember where I read it, I'll include the citation in my answer- nn – niels nielsen Nov 22 '21 at 17:55