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Consider the usual definitions $\sigma^\mu = (1, \sigma^i)$ and $\bar\sigma^\mu = (1, -\sigma^i)$, is it possible to show

$$\sigma^\mu_{\alpha \dot{\alpha}} \bar\sigma_\mu^{\dot{\beta} \beta} = 2\delta_\alpha ^\beta \delta_\dot{\alpha}^\dot\beta$$

without resorting to going through each index manually?

Qmechanic
  • 201,751
awsomeguy
  • 857
  • Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/249502/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/200800/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/293396/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Jan 26 '22 at 16:29
  • RHS should be contain the epsilon spinors ${\epsilon_{\alpha}}^{\beta}$ – KP99 Jan 26 '22 at 17:40

0 Answers0