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I am told that the the violation of Bell's inequalities prove that the universe cannot have local realism. That is to say, the universe cannot both be local and real.

I understand how Bell's theorem can be explained by assuming locality is false, but if we assume locality to be true (and therefore realism is false), how can we interpret the results of Bell's theorem? It seems like Bell's theorem simply disproves locality and nothing else. I have found similar questions on stack exchange, but none of the solutions sufficiently answer my question.

Any help is much appreciated.

Mauricio
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  • What exactly "realism" means is technically not as clear as one might expect, see e.g. the Stanford encyclopedia on the assumptions of Bell's theorem. 2. If the question is whether Bell's theorem can be derived without assuming "realism", see https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/734634/50583 for a recent related question
  • – ACuriousMind Jan 19 '23 at 01:52
  • First clarify how you are using the term "realism". In the context of Bell inequality it is being used in a technical sense concerned with observable physical quantities whose values can be guaranteed before measurement. The reality of the measuring apparatus itself is not in doubt in such discussions. – Andrew Steane Jan 19 '23 at 10:01
  • What everybody (except superdeterminists) seems to agree on is that quantum mechanics violates 'local realism'. What is locality and what is realism mean different thing to different people. To Einstein realism meant counterfactual defineteness (variables are determined before measurement) while when writing Bell's theorem people equate it with determinism (check @AcuriousMind Stanford link). Bell however argued that the determinist assumption is not necessary but then you need to understand his theory of 'beables'. – Mauricio Jan 19 '23 at 10:14