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Electromagnetic charges are obviously quantized - I suppose the lowest charge being the $d$ charge of $e/3$. Every other charged particle has a multiple of that charge (actually all stable free particles have charges multiple of just $e$). The same is true for the $U(1)$ hypercharge charges in the unbroken electroweak theory. I'm wondering if there's a better reason for this than I was previously aware of.

I'm aware of Dirac's argument that if a single magnetic monopole existed in our universe, all charge would need to be quantized, or some quantum mechanical calculation wouldn't provide a sensible answer.

I'm also aware that there are unification theories, where the $U(1)$ hypercharge symmetry arises after the breaking of a larger symmetry group at higher energies, and the relative charges of the $U(1)$ symmetry in the low energy theory become integer multiples of each other.

Is there a better reason for charge quantization? Both of these reasons seem kind of tenuous. If you just introduce a fundamental $U(1)$ symmetry in a QFT, then it looks like you should be free to choose any coupling constant for each particle, so they wouldn't need to be rational multiples of each other. Is there something mathematically wrong with fundamental $U(1)$ symmetries of nature? Or is there some contradiction that arises when calculating scattering cross sections with irrational $U(1)$ charges? Or do you need to go all the way to Dirac's, rather convoluted, argument (assuming a particle exists that doesn't) in order to see the problem with irrational charges.

Basically I'm trying to understand whether or not the rational hypercharge values are proof of some kind of unification at higher energies. Or do all $U(1)$'s in QFTs need to have rational charges anyway, so it isn't proof of anything.

Qmechanic
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AXensen
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    Anomaly cancellation in the standard model, see Gauge Theory by Tong, section 3.4.4. – Nihar Karve Apr 19 '23 at 11:57
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    Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/371598/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/97909/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Apr 19 '23 at 11:59
  • I'm no expert, but I think of each quantized property as being a sort of standing wave in something. A standing wave in a box has quantized allowed frequencies even though a traveling wave in the same medium could have any frequency. I imagine that there are transient particles that tend to quickly stabilize into "standing particles" like electrons. I imagine that if you looked at a short enough time scale you could see particles with arbitrary charge. But that's just my imagination. – Rich006 Apr 19 '23 at 12:02
  • @Qmechanic The best I got from the second duplicate was the comment "To quote 't Hooft: "Only if the underlying gauge group is compact, and has a compact covering group, must electric charges in the U(1) gauge groups be quantized [...], and whenever the covering group of the underlying gauge group is compact, magnetic monopole solutions can be constructed."". So does this boil down to Dirac's argument, after all? Do magnetic monopoles have to exist, even if they are so heavy that we haven't been able to create them in an accelerator, yet? Your answer seems to point in the same direction. – FlatterMann Apr 19 '23 at 12:06
  • I was not previously aware that in a U(1) gauge symmetry charge immediately had to be quantized. But I guess it makes sense. And I hadn't considered that this contributes to anomaly cancellation. Thanks all. – AXensen Apr 19 '23 at 12:14

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