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This question is a continuation of previous questions about the spectral theorem. We consider a finite-dimensional space, say $V \in \mathbb{C}^{n}$, and let $A \in V$ denote a self-adjoint (hermitian) operator in this finite dimensional space. We can then state the spectral theorem as $A=\sum_ia_iP(a_i)$, i.e. the operator $A$ can be decomposed as the summation of the product of each eigenvalue multiplied by each projection operator. I understand this representation and see how it can be coupled to the spectral theorem for matrices given by $A=U \Lambda U^{\dagger}$ where $U$ contains the eigenvectors along the columns of the matrix and $\Lambda$ contains the eigenvalues along the diagonal. I think it is a beautyful relation and imagine many advantages of decomposing the operator using this structure.

Now; For the infinite-dimensional case we consider the Hilbert space $\mathbb{H}$, and we want to express the spectral theorem within this space. Again, we let $A$ denote a self-adjoint (hermitian) operator within this Hilbert space so that $A \in \mathbb{H}$. To this operator there exists a unique family of projection operators, $E(\lambda)$, for real $\lambda$, with specific properties. To be explicit, these properties are given by Leslie E. Ballentine in the book Quantum Mechanics: A Modern Development (and I cite):

To each self-adjoint operator $A$ there corresponds a unique family of projection operators, $E(\lambda)$, for real $\lambda$, with the properties:

If $\lambda_1 < \lambda_2$ then $E(\lambda_1)E(\lambda_2)=E(\lambda_2)E(\lambda_1)=E(\lambda_1)$

If $\epsilon>0$, then $E(\lambda+\epsilon)|\psi\rangle \rightarrow E(\lambda)|\psi\rangle$ as $\epsilon\rightarrow 0$

$E(\lambda)|\psi\rangle \rightarrow 0$ as $\lambda\rightarrow-\infty$

$E(\lambda)|\psi\rangle \rightarrow |\psi\rangle$ as $\lambda \rightarrow +\infty$

$\displaystyle \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\lambda \, \mathrm dE(\lambda)=A$

In my previous question, I was told that if we define the family of projection operators $E(\lambda)$ as follows;

$$E(\lambda):=\sum\limits_{\sigma(A)\ni a\leq \lambda} P_a = \sum\limits_{a \in \sigma(A) } \theta(\lambda-a)\ P_a \quad $$

Then we can derive a connection between the spectral theorem defined in finite- and infinite dimensions by using the properties of the projection operators $P(a_i)$ (I interpret this as the properties stated by Ballentine, given above, although these are given for $E(\lambda)$, not $P(a_i)$, -perhaps someone can clarify this as well?). I was told that the spectral theorem in finite dimensions basically states that the hermitian operator $A$ admits a complete orthonormal eigenbasis (and thus can be diagonalized), and I think this is an important aspect because, as Wikipedia states, the spectral theorem is the result when a linear operator or matrix can be diagonalized. I understand this, but yet I struggle to connect the definition of the spectral theorem in finite dimensions to its definition in infinite dimensions. Can someone explain this to me (and perhaps be as explicit as possible because I am still very new to this field)?

Related posts: What is the connection between the spectral theorem defined for Hilbert space and matrices respectively? & How to show the equivalence between different versions of the spectral theorem?

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    In infinite dimensions, many complications can arise. For example, there is a difference between hermitian and self-adjoint, to start with. Furthermore, there are self-adjoint operators with no eigenvectors at all (e.g. the usual position operator on $L^2$). The class of operators which resemble the finite-dimensional case to a certain extend are compact (self-adjoint) operators. – Tobias Fünke Jul 27 '23 at 08:37
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    So the upshot is that the infinite-dimensional case, and the corresponding version of the spectral theorem you cite here, is much more complicated than the finite-dimensional case. You should specify what exactly you are asking here, it is not completely clear to me. But see e.g. this -does it help? – Tobias Fünke Jul 27 '23 at 08:45
  • I have tried to express by question as explicit as I can. Really my question is; how do we connect the definition of the spectral theorem in finite dimensions to infinite dimensions. However, as you have written, the spectral theorem in infinite dimensions is a lot more complicated than the spectral theorem in finite dimensions so it might be hard to see the connection. But I struggle to accept the definition of the spectral theorem in infinite dimensions if I do not understand its equivalence to the finite-dimensional case. – Rasmus Andersen Jul 27 '23 at 08:49
  • Of course, I could just accept that the spectral theorem in infinite dimensions is given as written by Ballentine, but then I would not really understand its implications (from the finite-dimensional case) if that makes sense. – Rasmus Andersen Jul 27 '23 at 08:51
  • I see, but the two forms are not equivalent. As I've written in my previous answer, it is possible to show that the spectral theorem in the finite-dimensional case implies the existence of a spectral family $E(\lambda)$ which obeys the properties Ballentine lists. It is a more or less technical work - without the proper background it would be of no help. Conversely, if you start from the infinite-dimensional version (Ballentine), you can show that this implies for an operator on a finite dimensional space the properties you know already. But again, it is very technical and requires much work. – Tobias Fünke Jul 27 '23 at 08:51
  • Okay, thank you. It is, as you have written, a very technical work that requires more experience, and perhaps it is too early for me to understand and derive this connection. But what you have written at least gives me some understanding of the connection. – Rasmus Andersen Jul 27 '23 at 08:54
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    Yes, it is technical. But see e.g. the link in one of my previous comments above. Under certain conditions, you resemble the finite dimensional version with a finite sum replaced by an infinite one (roughly speaking), see eq. $(2)$ there (and set $f(\lambda)=\lambda$, such that $f(A)=A$), which then holds in the infinite-dimensional case. Also, see again my very first note on compact operators and the Wikipedia link. – Tobias Fünke Jul 27 '23 at 08:56
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    Related post by OP: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/773496/2451 – Qmechanic Jul 27 '23 at 09:03

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