I am trying to study and understand QFT from the perspective of symmetries. I was referred to this super helpful answer by @ACuriousMind : https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/174908/50583. I still have a lingering question though.
I was going through these set of notes : https://www.physics.uci.edu/~tanedo/files/notes/FlipSUSY.pdf. Here the author says :
The key, however, is that one must look at full Poincaré group (incorporating translations as well as Lorentz transformations) to develop a consistent picture. Adding the translation generator P to the algebra surprisingly turns out to cure the ills of non-unitarity (i.e. of non-compactness). The cost for these features, as mentioned above, is that the representations will become infinite dimensional, but this infinite dimensionality is well-understood physically: we can boost into any of a continuum of frames where the particle has arbitrarily boosted four-momentum.
Now as I understand it, the non-compactness of both the Lorentz and the Poincare groups yields infinite dimensional unitary representations only. This is fine, because, the elements of these infinite dimensional representations are not the classical fields themselves (i.e, scalars, 4-vectors, 4-spinors etc.), but rather fields as seen as operator-valued distributions on some infinite dimensional Hilbert space.
But then, why don't the unitary, infinite dimensional representations of the Lorentz group work? I mean, I get that the universe respects more than just Lorentzian symmetry; it also respects translations, so it makes sense to look for representations of the full Poincare group. But the aforementioned quote from the author seems to suggest that we somehow need translation symmetry (and the full Poincare group) to get any unitary representations at all. Is the author incorrect here or am I missing something?