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Consider the two-way tachyonic antitelephone where the speed at which message is transmitted is $a$. A person $A$ sends a message to $B$ which is moving away with a speed of $v$ with respect to $A$. And when $B$ receives a message $B$ transmits a message back to $A$. Since, both of them have the same device, in each of the persons frame the speed of transmission is $a$. Now, when $B$ is at a distance $L$ away from $A$ with respect to $A$, $A$ sends a message which takes a time $$t_1 = \frac{L}{a}$$ to reach $B$, at the same moment $B$ sends a message to $A$ with a speed $a$ relative to itself towards $A$, due to which the time taken by the message to reach $A$ in $A$'s frame will be $$t_2 = \frac{L(1-av)}{a-v} \equiv \frac{L}{a'}$$ where we have used the fact that now the speed of the transmission from $B$ towards $A$ relative to $A$ is $$a' = \frac{a-v}{1-av}$$ Hence, the total time measured by $A$ from sending the message to $B$ and getting a response is $$T=t_1+t_2=\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1-a v}{a-v}\right) L$$

Now, the argument is that one can choose $a$ such that $T < 0$ and, hence, $A$ will receive a message from $B$ before he even sends one to $B$. However, if you choose $a$ such that $T < 0$ we see that it will $a' < 0$ which means that the reply from $B$ is actually going away from $A$, so $A$ will never receive a message from $B$. So I do not see where the paradox actually is?

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Now, the argument is that one can choose $a$ such that $T < 0$ and, hence, $A$ will receive a message from $B$ before he even sends one to $B$. However, if you choose $a$ such that $T < 0$ we see that it will $a' < 0$ which means that the reply from $B$ is actually going away from $A$, so $A$ will never receive a message from $B$. So I do not see where the paradox actually is?

This doesn't work. The easiest way to see this is to simply use the Lorentz transform on some of the intermediate events on the worldline of the signal. You can parameterize these intermediate events with some frame independent affine parameter, $\lambda$.

If $\lambda$ increases along the signal's worldline from $B$ to $A$, that fact will hold in all frames. As $\lambda$ increases, the signal gets closer to $A$. In $B$'s frame $\lambda$ will increase with time but in $A$'s frame $\lambda$ will decrease with time, but in both frames the signal will get closer to $A$ with increasing $\lambda$.

For example, consider $B$ returning a tachyon signal to $A$. For concreteness let $A$ and $B$ pass each other at $t=t'=0$ with $A$ moving at $v=0.6$ in $B$'s frame (the unprimed frame) in units where $c=1$. In $B$'s frame the worldline for $A$ is $(t_A(t),x_A(t))=(t,0.6\ t)$. At time $t=5$ in $B$'s frame, $B$ will send a tachyon signal which travels at $u=6$. In terms of an affine parameter $\lambda$ the worldline for the signal is $(t_s(\lambda),x_s(\lambda))=(\lambda+5,6\lambda)$. Solving for $(t_A,x_A)=(t_s,x_s)$ we get $\lambda = 5/9$ which means that in all frames the affine parameter runs from $0$ to $5/9$. Now, Lorentz transforming to $A$'s frame (the primed frame), we get the worldline for the tachyon signal is $(t'_s(\lambda),x'_s(\lambda))=(-3.25 \lambda+6.25,6.75 \lambda-3.75)$. We can simply evaluate this worldline at say $\lambda = 2/9$ and $\lambda = 4/9$ to get $(t'_s(2/9),x'_s(2/9))=(5.52,-2.25)$ and $(t'_s(4/9),x'_s(4/9))=(4.81,-0.75)$. So in $A$'s frame the negative signal velocity means that the signal is going backwards in time as it approaches $A$.

Dale
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  • Can you give a reference for this? Also, what is wrong with my argument here? – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 14:48
  • @Dr.user44690 the answer by David Z is worthwhile https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/17509/what-is-the-physical-meaning-of-the-affine-parameter-for-null-geodesic as is Sean Carroll's Lecture notes on general relativity https://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/9712019 (see chapter 3). Your argument is wrong simply because you are incorrectly transforming events on the worldline of the tachyon. – Dale Mar 15 '24 at 16:16
  • You are just repeating what you said. And I have not incorrectly transformed anything, I have simply pointed a flaw in the argument that is used to show this paradox. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 16:25
  • You incorrectly transform when you claim that the reply from $B$ is going away from $A$. It is not, in a frame invariant sense. – Dale Mar 15 '24 at 16:33
  • Can you just check what happens to $a'$ when $a$ becomes large enough? That is how this paradox is established. When $a' < 0$ , that is when we have $T < 0$ and that is how the paradox works. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 16:41
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    @Dr.user44690 I have updated my answer with an example of the correct way to do such a computation. – Dale Mar 15 '24 at 19:14
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    Thank you so much. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 19:41
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Assume that the information transmitted is a bit, that Alice always repeats, and Bob always switches.

In Alice's point of view: she receives a call from Bob telling her a bit, and she calls him back repeating the same bit.

In Bob's point of view: he receives a call from Alice telling her a bit, and he calls her back and says the other bit.

You can then prove that both Alice and Bob pronounce both $0$ and $1$; this is a contradiction.

Plop
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See my second paragraph for the tl;dr version of the paradox. @Dale has already given the correct answer, which is that the interpretation of negative speeds has to be done carefully. A better way to proceed would be to explicitly write down the spacetime coordinates of events: $S_A$ being the event when A sends the message, $R_B = S_B$ being the event where B receives the message and sends the reply, and $R_A$ being the event where A receives the reply. Start in A's frame of reference, figure out what the coordinates of $R_B$ are according to A, then transform to B's frame of reference. Then, working in B's frame of reference, figure out what the coordinates are of $R_A$ (where and when, according to B, A will receive the echo'd reply). Finally transform that back to A's frame, and you will find that, potentially, the time coordinate according to A of receiving the echo can be less than the original time coordinate at which A sent the first message.

To take an extreme case, suppose the FTL message is extremely fast, so that transmission time is negligible. If A sends the message at time $t=1$, then due to time dilation B will receive it at time $t' < 1$ (according to A, B's clock runs slow). But time dilation is symmetric, and indeed the whole scenario is symmetric. If B holds on to the message and sends it back at time $t' = 1$, A will receive it at time $t < 1$, i.e. before he sent it!

All speeds are relative, so if B's clock ticks slower according to A, then A's clock ticks slower according to B. This is the root cause of the tachyonic anti-telephone paradox.

Some students (even advanced students) have trouble accepting that time dilation is symmetric, but a very similar issue arises in ordinary Euclidean geometry, where relative lengths are "expanded" ($\frac{dL'}{dL} > 1$ and also $\frac{dL}{dL'} > 1$). This Euclidean equivalent and how it applies to the "twin paradox" is nicely illustrated by Ben Rudiak-Gould: Euclidean "twin paradox"

Eric Smith
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  • Let's do a non-relativistic computation then. And instead of a signal a ball is being passed around. Let $a, v << 1$ then we have $ T = \frac{L}{a} + \frac{L}{a-v}$ now suppose $v = a+\epsilon$ such that $\epsilon\approx 0$ then we have $T \approx -\frac{L}{\epsilon}$. Now, do you also interpret this case as the ball being sent to the past? No, because the ball speed relative to $A$ in this case is $-\epsilon$, the ball is going away from $A$. So, the interpretation of negative time should be the message never making it to $A$. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 17:48
  • Also, instantaneous speed would mean $a \to \infty$ but then that means $a' \to -1/v$ from the formula. So, a message that is instantaneous with respect to $B$ has a finite speed with respect to $A$. And from the above experiment it is clear it is in the direction away from $A$. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 17:55
  • You seem really hung up on speed, but speed is relative. Look at events instead, which are absolute. If B sends a message to A, and in B's frame of reference it arrives at A, then it arrives at A for everyone. The time coordinate at which it arrives for A may vary though, and by allowing FTL speeds you allow that time coordinate to vary in such a way that it can become negative. – Eric Smith Mar 15 '24 at 18:19
  • Or, back up and consider just one half of the communication. Suppose A and B are moving apart at 0.866 (so time dilation factor of 2). If their clocks are initially synchronized, and A sends a nearly instantaneous (relative to A) message when her clock shows 8, what time will show on B's clock when he receives it? (Answer: 4) – Eric Smith Mar 15 '24 at 18:31
  • All I am getting is opinions but no computations nor I am getting any comments on where I made a mistake in my computations. Also, this computation and proof of paradox I took from Wikipedia. I am merely pointing a flaw in the paradox using the same reasoning. $T$ becomes negative when $a'$ becomes negative. That is the reasoning used on Wikipedia. I am simply asking why does this make sense when clearly $a' < 0$ can easily be interpreted as going away just like in the non-relativistic case. – Dr. user44690 Mar 15 '24 at 18:31
  • Now swap the roles of A and B in the comment above: if B sends a message when his clock shows 8, then if that message is (nearly) instantaneous with respect to B, then A's clock will show 4 when she receives it. – Eric Smith Mar 15 '24 at 18:34