Why do we take the value of the constant in Coulomb's law as $\frac{1}{4\pi\varepsilon_0}$?

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score 0 · Answer 1 · answered Jul 27 '14 at 10:53

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By Cavendish torsion balance, similar to the measure of gravitational constant.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cavendish_experiment

answered Jul 27 '14 at 10:53

Danielpan

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Please do not post answer with only a link, but try to explain what it is about, such that people understand it without following the link. Links may die over time. – Bernhard Jul 27 '14 at 11:28

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