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Why are higher order Lagrangians called 'non-local'?

Bjorken and Drell presents the equation:

$$i\hbar\frac{d\psi}{dt}=H\psi=\sqrt{p^2 c^2+m^2 c^4}\psi=\sqrt{-\hbar^2 c^2 \nabla^2+m^2 c^4}\psi$$

The squareroot can be expanded to obtain an equation with all powers of the derivative operator. What do they mean when they say this leads to a non-local theory?

And is this equation incorrect or just impractical?

TROLLHUNTER
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To see why the theory is nonlocal, consider the effect of the derivative operator... I like to put things on a lattice, so I will: $\psi_i=\psi(x_i)$, then the derivatives (in 1D, for simplicity) become $$\nabla^2 \psi_i \propto (\psi_{i-1}-2\psi_i + \psi_{i+1})$$ Now, you can see what happens as you continue to apply derivatives (as you must, in the expansion of the square root) -- For high order derivatives, the time-derivative of $\psi$ at a lattice site will depend on the instantaneous spatial values of the whole field!

wsc
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  • +1 But I dont see how this extends to continuous wave functions – TROLLHUNTER Sep 19 '11 at 15:19
  • Because the derivatives of continuous functions depend in a less obvious way on local properties of the function that become less and less local for higher order derivatives... For example a first derivative at a point tells you the slope of a function - you need to know what its neighborhood is doing. The second derivative tells you how other points in the neighborhood change, so you need to know about their neighborhoods. – wsc Sep 19 '11 at 15:24