In some Yang-Mills theory with gauge group $G$, the gauge fields $A_{\mu}^{a}$ transform as $$A_{\mu}^{a} \to A_{\mu}^{a} \pm \partial_{\mu}\theta^{a} \pm f^{abc}A_{\mu}^{b}\theta^{c}$$ $$A_{\mu}^{a} \to A_{\mu}^{a} \pm \left(\partial_{\mu}\theta^{a}-A_{\mu}^{b}f^{bac}\theta^{c}\right)$$ $$A_{\mu}^{a} \to A_{\mu}^{a} \pm \left(\partial_{\mu}\theta^{a}-iA_{\mu}^{b}(T^{b}_{\text{adj}})^{ac}\theta^{c}\right),$$
where $T^{a}_{\text{adj}}$ is the adjoint representation of the gauge group $G$ and the gauge parameters $\theta^{a}$ are seen to transform in the adjoint representation of the gauge group $G$.
Why does this mean that the gauge fields $A_{\mu}^{a}$ transform in the adjoint representation?
Should the transformation of the gauge fields $A_{\mu}^{a}$ in the adjoint representation not be given by
$$A_{\mu}^{a} \to A_{\mu}^{a} \pm i\theta^{b}(T^{b}_{\text{adj}})^{ac}A_{\mu}^{c}?$$