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If an object A exerts a force on another object B, an equal and opposite force will be applied on object A by object B, so that means for a force to be applied on object B by object A, a force must have been applied on object A itself, so when object B exerts a reaction force on object A, the net force on object A will be "0" and object A will not move but object B will. If this is so then how will walking be possible? Because when we push the ground, it pushes back to cancel the force we are already applying on the ground.

Qmechanic
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Taofeek
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    An object does not feel the force it exerts itself. As you say: "...for a force to be applied on object B by* object A..." Object B feels this force, not* object A. Object A only feels the reaction force, which is then not balanced out. – Steeven Dec 12 '18 at 06:56
  • Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/45653/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Dec 12 '18 at 07:27

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The forces are applied on different bodies.

When you walk, you push the ground. This causes the ground to move (of course, by $F=ma$, $m$ is the mass of the Earth and so the force you exert on it has negligible effect). Against that, the force the ground exerts on you acts on your much-smaller mass, and that's why you move.

Allure
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