0

In the case of spin system, let's consider Sx be along X direction Sy be along Y direction and Sz be along Z direction. We know there is a finite probability for spin up and spin down states in these directions. If we apply magnetic field along any one direction, say, X direction. Then probability for finding particle in spin up state and spin down state both will be half along X axis. Why is it so? Even if we are measuring in X direction there is a finite probability along Y and Z directions why?

Abin Philip
  • 13
  • This might be helpful: https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/47331/why-for-a-spin-½-particle-are-the-possible-outcomes-of-measuring-spin-projecti?rq=1 –  Aug 24 '19 at 17:23
  • This is not the required answer I want to know about the probabilities of the above mentioned values. Thank you – Abin Philip Aug 24 '19 at 17:30
  • Okay, but then would you be more specific about your question, with the following particularly: "Even if we are measuring in X direction there is a finite probability along with Y and Z directions why?" I am not sure I clearly understand what you would like to ask. –  Aug 24 '19 at 17:33
  • When we measure along X axis system will collapse into this direction. Then possibility of finding spin state along Y and Z is negligible even though we are getting finite probability along Y and Z why? – Abin Philip Aug 27 '19 at 07:06
  • Take a look at http://depts.washington.edu/jrphys/ph315W08/spinmag.pdf – pawel_winzig Aug 27 '19 at 15:49

0 Answers0