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If a particle on earth is entangled with a partner particle in Andromeda, and the wave function collapses here on earth, the wave function would, as I understand it, collapse in Andromeda too. Does that imply there is a universal "now"? Doesn't that violate SR?

Qmechanic
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ijaubgiaugf
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  • This question might be of interest to you: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/518071/ – Igneous01 Jan 11 '20 at 22:19
  • https://www.sciencealert.com/if-you-thought-quantum-mechanics-was-weird-wait-til-you-check-out-entangled-time – sammy gerbil Jan 12 '20 at 04:14
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    I don't see what's wrong with this question except that it could do with a bit more explanation as to what is meant by a universal now. – sammy gerbil Jan 12 '20 at 04:16
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    The devil is in the details, @ijaubgiaugf . How exactly would it it imply a universal now? What do you suggest to define this? – doublefelix Jan 12 '20 at 09:42
  • A universal now in the classical Newtonian sense of an absolute separate time. However perhaps I misunderstand something and need to rephrase my question; let me think about this. – ijaubgiaugf Jan 12 '20 at 15:13
  • First of all, how could you possibly entangle a particle in one galaxy with a particle in another galaxy. If the two particles are real particles such as photons or electrons, then how SPECIFICALLY do you plan on entangling them? You can correlate their spins or polarizations along with linear dependency etc, but what else could entanglement possibly mean? – Bill Alsept Jan 12 '20 at 16:30
  • Well, you would not be able to send classical information instantly, if this is what you are asking. – Anixx Jan 12 '20 at 18:33
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    Please take to heart the comment by @doublefelix --- try spelling out in detail how you are going to use entanglement to define your "universal now". In the process, you'll either discover where your proposal goes astray or discover a way to ask a question that others can understand and try to answer. – WillO Jan 15 '20 at 00:11

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