12

Newton's second law, for example, states that $F=ma$. Is this absolutely true, down to the smallest possible unit of measurement? Or is it just a handy approximation that happens to work extremely well for everyday sized objects/forces?

Suppose I have some arbitrarily precise measuring devices capable of taking measurements down to the Planck length/second/force. And I set up an experiment where I apply a force to an object to test its acceleration, removing all outside interference. Would $F=ma$ hold true?

G. Smith
  • 51,534
  • I've removed some comments that answered the question, and replies to them. – rob Apr 13 '20 at 22:35
  • 2
  • Contrary to popular belief, the Planck length is not so special, cf. https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/185939/50583. 2. This is more a metaphysics/philosophy question than a physics question as such, as it is much more about the meaning of words like "true" and a matter of how carefully you phrase the physical law (e.g. "F=ma" vs. "F=ma for all classical systems" vs. "F=ma for all classical mechanics systems, where...") than a question about the content of any specific physical theory.
  • – ACuriousMind Apr 14 '20 at 16:10