If a sphere is rolling down a friction-less incline surface, does it not roll?

Question

I'm solving a problem where a ball rolls down a hill, but the friction between the ball and surface is 0. So it obviously slips, but does it only slip? As in does it not roll at all? Or does it slip and roll? Thanks.

Does this answer your question? What will happen to a ball kept on a frictionless inclined plane? — Elendil, May 22 '20 at 01:11
Re, "A ball rolls down a hill...does it not roll?" I think you could be more explicit in describing the experiment. E.g., Are you imagining that the ball has or does not have any angular momentum at the top of the slope? — Solomon Slow, May 22 '20 at 12:57

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered May 21 '20 at 23:53

1

If the coefficient of friction really is zero, all frictional forces are zero, and the ball slips without rolling. If the coefficient of friction is nonzero but small, the ball starts out slipping but transitions to rolling. If the coefficient of friction is large, the ball starts rolling without first slipping.

answered May 21 '20 at 23:53

niels nielsen

92,630

1

If the ball was rolling before it started slipping, it would keep rolling. – safesphere May 22 '20 at 06:49

score 0 · Answer 2 · answered May 22 '20 at 07:00

0

If u provide an initial rotational impulse also then ball will also roll with constant $w$ but increasing $v$

answered May 22 '20 at 07:00

Namburu Karthik

109

If a sphere is rolling down a friction-less incline surface, does it not roll?

2 Answers2