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Suppose we have an ideal massless lever with a fixed pivot point and a mass $m_{1}$ (at radius $L_{1}$) on one end and mass $m_{2}$ (at radius $L_{2}$) on the opposite end, and assume gravity plays no role in the scenario. Suppose also that I apply a constant force of $F_{A}$ onto mass $m_{1}$ perpendicular to the lever. This causes the lever to rotate as indicated in the sketch below.

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Of course by Newton's third law, there will be a reaction force $\vec{F}_{R} = -\vec{F}_{A}$ on my hand. Let us calculate the angular acceleration of the lever.

The applied torque on the lever is $\tau = F_{A}\cdot L_{1}$ in the clockwise direction. The moment of inertia of the entire setup is $I = m_{1}L_{1}^{2} + m_{2}L_{2}^{2}$, so the angular acceleration will be $$ \alpha = \frac{F_{A} L_{1}}{m_{1}L_{1}^{2} + m_{2}L_{2}^{2}}. $$

Now I will calculate the net force on mass $m_{2}$. Since the calculation is not as essential as the result, the reader can skip the piece quoted below.

If we take the $xy$-coordinates to be centered at the pivot with mass $m_{2}$ initially at $\vec{x}(0) = (-L_{2}, 0)$, the position of mass $m_{2}$ at later times will be $$ \vec{x}(t) = (-L_{2}\cos(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2}), L_{2}\sin(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2})). $$ The velocity is $$ \dot{\vec{x}}(t) = (L_{2}\alpha t \cdot \sin(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2}), L_{2}\alpha t \cdot \cos(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2})), $$ and the acceleration is $$ \ddot{\vec{x}}(t) = (L_{2}\alpha\sin(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2}) + L_{2}\alpha^{2}t^{2}\cos(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2}), L_{2}\alpha\cos(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2}) - L_{2}\alpha^{2}t^{2}\sin(\tfrac{1}{2}\alpha t^{2})). $$ At the initial time $t=0$, we find $\ddot{\vec{x}}(0) = (0, L_{2}\alpha)$, so overall mass $m_{2}$ initially experiences a force $$ F(0) = m_{2}\cdot |\ddot{\vec{x}}(0)| = m_{2}\cdot L_{2}\alpha = \frac{m_{2} L_{1}L_{2}}{m_{1}L_{1}^{2} + m_{2}L_{2}^{2}} F_{A} $$ in the $+y$-direction.

Hence at $t=0$, the net force on $m_{2}$ is $$ \vec{F}(0) = \frac{m_{2} L_{1}L_{2}}{m_{1}L_{1}^{2} + m_{2}L_{2}^{2}} F_{A} \vec{e}_{y}. $$

Now in this scenario, what is the reaction force accompanying $\vec{F}$ and where is it applied? By Newton's third law, there must be an equal and opposite reaction force, but there is no apparent reaction force accompanying the force I calculated above.

In a previous post of mine, I questioned whether the strong form of Newton's third law holds, but now I'm confused as to how even the weak form of the law applies to this situation. Can someone clarify what is going on here?

  • You mean the second mass doesn't have an inertial force acting on the lever? Or that you are neglecting the forces on the lever's pivot point? I don't know what I am supposed to be missing here. Can you explain in more detail? – FlatterMann May 25 '23 at 01:09
  • @FlatterMann Well I'm assuming the lever is massless (this may or may not be a valid idealization here). Where would the equal and opposite force to $\vec{F}$ go? And if the lever were not massless, where would the equal and opposite force to $\vec{F}$ go? – Maximal Ideal May 25 '23 at 01:20
  • The lever's pivot is massless? That's usually not the description of a pivot. A pivot is generally supposed to have infinite mass to remain motionless. – FlatterMann May 25 '23 at 01:22
  • @FlatterMann The lever's pivot has infinite mass; the lever itself is massless. – Maximal Ideal May 25 '23 at 01:23
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    Exactly. The infinite mass of the pivot is exerting a force on the lever and the lever is exerting the opposite force on the pivot's mass. – FlatterMann May 25 '23 at 01:25
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    @MaximalIdeal Notice that the rate of change of momentum of the system in total is not equal to the force $F_A$ which means that there has to exist another force wihich is applied on the system. That force is the one exerted by the pivot and it includes the reaction force you are looking for. – Kani Pen May 25 '23 at 01:29
  • @FlatterMann Right, fair enough. Let's suppose I took the lever to have uniform mass along one dimension (so the moment of inertia is now $I = m_{1}L_{1}^{2}+m_{2}L_{2}^{2} + I_{\text{rod}}$). Is there a way to obtain the full description of all the forces involved? Maybe this is going beyond my original question, I apologize. – Maximal Ideal May 25 '23 at 01:31
  • I don't know what "uniform mass along one dimension" is supposed to mean in case of infinite mass. So you don't have a pivot, after all and the question is not the question you wanted to ask? Please ask the correct question If the rod is an extended mass, then the idea of point masses goes out the window, of course. Your entire post seems to have been predicated on point masses and pivot points and rods of zero mass. Now you want to talk continuum mechanics? – FlatterMann May 25 '23 at 01:33
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    @MaximalIdeal if you considered that the rod has a constant density along its length then you should calculate the total moment of inertia of the system around its pivot. You know the torque of $F_A$ around the pivot so you can calculate the angular acceleration. Using the angular acceleration and taking into account the centripetal forces you find the total force exerted on your 2 masses and the centre of mass of the rod. Since you know all the forces of the bodies you can calculate the force of the pivot . – Kani Pen May 25 '23 at 01:41

2 Answers2

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Hence at $t=0$, the net force on $m_{2}$ is $$ \vec{F}(0) = \frac{m_{2} L_{1}L_{2}}{m_{1}L_{1}^{2} + m_{2}L_{2}^{2}} F_{A} \vec{e}_{y}. $$

Now in this scenario, what is the reaction force accompanying $\vec{F}$ and where is it applied?

Since $\vec F$ is a net force it does not generally have a Newton’s 3rd law pair. Each of the individual forces have their own 3rd law pair forces, but since those forces generally may act on different objects it does not generally make sense to sum them.

However, in this specific case there is only one force acting on the mass. So since the net force is just a single force, in this specific case it does have a 3rd law pair.

That force is the force acting on the left end of the lever. The lever pushes the block in the positive $y$ direction and so the block pushes the lever in the negative $y$ direction. So the end of the lever is loaded in shear.

Dale
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This problem arises because you are inconsistently choosing to handle the $m_2+$lever$+m_1$ system together as a rigid body, and then suddenly considering $m_2$ separately from that.

Firstly, you have to take $m_2+$lever$+m_1$ system together. The force from your hand onto this combined system is $F_A$, and you drew it originating on the wrong place. It cannot be coming from the centre of $m_1$, but rather must be coming from the junction between your hand and the block. You need to consider them together, in order to get the angular acceleration $\alpha$ as you correctly did. The N3L pair of $F_A$ is the $F_R$ that you drew, but moved to the same junction too.

When you calculated the force felt by $m_2$ separately, using the $\alpha$ found above, the calculation is correct, but you made a swap of viewpoint. This is the force of the lever+$m_1$ system pushing on $m_2$, and its N3L pair is the same magnitude force of $m_2$ pushin on the lever+$m_1$ system.

You can even go into even deeper detail and separate lever and $m_1$ too. In that case, the masslessness of the lever will be a pain. It can be rigorously sorted out, but the masslessness gives an illusion of breakage in the mathematics.

There is just a lot of annoyance in this problem. The pivot is also pushing on the lever. There are a lot of calculations you could do, to show that everything is internally self-consistent.