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I was reading second chapter of Introductory Nuclear Physics by Kenneth S.Krane, and in that chapter he was giving about the logic of why there must be a factor of $\rho(E_{f})$ in the decay probability term, i.e. $$\lambda=\frac{2\pi}{\hbar}|V_{fi}|^2\rho(E_{f}).$$

He says,

"The quantity $\rho(E_{f})$ is known as the density of final states. It is the number of states per unit energy interval at $E$, and it must be included for the following reason: if the final state $E_{f}$, is a single isolated state, then the decay probability will be much smaller than it would be in the case that there are many, many states in a narrow band near $E_{f}$. If there is a large density of states near $E_{f}$, there are more possible final states that can be reached by the transition and thus a larger transition probability".

Now I personally did not get the logic as to why we must incorporate this factor, and don't the same thing apply for the ground state too also.

Qmechanic
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Anshul Sharma
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    That argument is just sooooo bad. Instead, I would separate between transitions from discrete to discrete, discrete to continuous, continuous to discrete, and continuous to continuous, and the transition probabilities are different for all 4 cases. Those that involve the continuous spectrum have the density of states appear in the transition probability. – naturallyInconsistent Jun 27 '23 at 13:26
  • There is a discussion in this answer and also here. A higher level approach is here. – Roger V. Jul 04 '23 at 08:39

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Intuitively, the probability for going from a state $\vert \phi_i\rangle$ to a manifold of states $\{\vert \phi_f\rangle\}$ at a particular energy $E_f$ should depend on how many states are in the available energy region.

Imagine the following scenario within Fermi's golden rule drawn in the cartoon below. It shows a schematic of a single hydrogen atom which is adsorbed on a solid surface. We shall ask ourselves the question "at which rate does the electron in the hydrogen atom decay into the surfaces' states, ending up with a particular final energy $E_f$?".

Let's describe the hydrogen by a single level at energy $\varepsilon_i$, which corresponds to the initial state $\vert \phi_i\rangle$ (black bar on the left side of the plot). The solid shall be characterized by its surface density of states, which is the number of states per volume of the solid "seen" from outside the solid (not in the bulk). This is shown on the right side by the blue semi-circles. Here I have chosen an example in which the density of states is a function of energy and has a gap (meaning, in a certain energy range there are no states, which would correspond to a band insulator). The coupling $W_{if}$ is depicted by the lines connecting the single level with the density of states of the surface. These are also in general energy-dependent (which I tried to draw using a color coding from dark black (very strong $W_{if}$) to gray (very weak $W_{if}$)). The reason for the energy dependence of $W_{if}$ is that some surface states have a larger overlap with the hydrogen state than others (think, for example, about delocalized bloch states vs. localized surface states far away from the hydrogen atom).

Now in this picture, I think, it is pretty clear that if we ask ourselves "at which rate does the electron go from $\varepsilon_i$ in the hydrogen atom to $\varepsilon_i$ in the solid?", the answer is "zero", because there are no states the electron can go to at that particular final energy (due to the gap).

If we would ask ourselves "which states in the solid get populated the fastest?", the answer within Fermi's golden rule would be "those states with eigenenergies in the energy window $(E,E+\Delta E)$, for which the product of the transition probability and the density of states is maximal." This is simply FGR written out in words, but I think that the picture shown below makes it pretty clear, as $W_{if}$ act as "wires" connecting $\vert \phi_i\rangle$ with the manifold of states $\{\vert \phi_f\rangle\}$ (and their density given by $\rho(E_f)$).

enter image description here

  • My doubt is why we consider final states of final energy to be reaches only and not initial state. Also why does it only appears for time dependent potentials only s.t these potentials are also weak and for short time only these potential effect takes place and not for time independent potentials. The second doubt is when there is a transition from initial to final states, and say initial state is some excited state and my final state is ground state, then does that means ground state have bunch of many continuum states. – Anshul Sharma Jul 04 '23 at 12:14
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  • One considers the initial state. Its just conceptually simpler to understand the content of FGR using a single initial state. In principle, the system can be prepared in multiple states in a superposition. The probabilities would then simply sum up over all initial states. 2) In the example above the potential is not time-dependent. You still do time-dependent perturb. theory, but in the interaction-picture (then the potential is time-dep.). 3) The potential has to be weak, since perturb. theory is then most likely expected to work. 4) I'm not sure if I understand properly, but I'd say no.
  • – Rudolf Smorka Jul 04 '23 at 13:21
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    Edit/comment to point 2): The interaction does not have to be necessarily time-dependent. It can be also constant. Then the perturbation theory is even simpler since the elements $\langle \psi_f\vert V\vert \psi_i\rangle$ (with interaction potential $V$) can be taken outside of the time-integral. – Rudolf Smorka Jul 04 '23 at 14:59
  • So a potential which is time independent, does it not make sense then to just simply use time independent perturbation theory, then why we account it in time dependent perturbation problem? – Anshul Sharma Jul 08 '23 at 08:38
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    A rate tells you how much a thing changes in time. For this the time-dependence of the wavefunction is needed. – Rudolf Smorka Jul 08 '23 at 15:46
  • So what about those problems like sor infinite well, finite well, harmonic oscillator etc, they all are also like a constant time independent perturbation, does the same thing happen. Because as far as I know these all are stationary states and once they are at a particular level, they will remain there forever. – Anshul Sharma Jul 09 '23 at 03:53
  • The usual assumptions of perturbation theoy have to hold, i.e. the interaction is weak. The examples you gave all have known exact solutions. So whats the point in doing perturbation theory anyways? I suggest you to open a new question for your questions on perturbation theory, so other people can find it as well, since the comment section is not really suited for extended discussions. – Rudolf Smorka Jul 09 '23 at 08:55