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I have seen the following dispersion relation as a differential equation: $$ \frac{ \partial \mathbf{k} }{ \partial t } + \left( \mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \right) \mathbf{k} = 0 \tag{1} $$ in the page number 135 of the textbook Holton, J. R., & Hakim, G. J. (2013). An introduction to dynamic meteorology (5th ed., Vol. 88). Amsterdam: Elsevier. , and also here: https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/381974/393802

But it does not make sense to me, so I am not sure it is a (propagated) typo or there is something I do not understand.

Let's follow the cited book and assume that we have a 2-dimensional wave and that the phase of the wave, $\phi$, is real. The wave number, $\mathbf{k}$ and the angular frequency, $\omega$, can be expressed as differential operations on the angular phase, $\phi$. The angular phase $\phi$ for a two dimensional wave can be expressed as $\phi = kx+ly- \omega t$, where $k$ and $l$ are the wave numbers in the $x$ and $y$ directions, respectively, and $\omega$ is the angular frequency. The wave vector is defined as $ \mathbf{k} = k \mathbf{i} + l \mathbf{j} $, So, we can get the wave vector from the angular phase by applying the spatial gradient: $$ \mathbf{k} = \nabla \phi = {\partial \phi \over \partial x} \mathbf{i} + {\partial \phi \over \partial y} \mathbf{j} \tag{2} $$ Or, in matrix notation and assuming that the gradient is a row vector: $$ \mathbf{k} = \nabla \phi = \left( {\partial \phi \over \partial x} , {\partial \phi \over \partial y}\right) \tag{3} $$

On the other hand we can get the angular frequency by applying the time derivative on the angular phase: $$ \omega = - {\partial \phi \over \partial t} \tag{4} $$

Now we can take the time derivative of to get: $$ {\partial \mathbf{k} \over \partial t} = {\partial \over \partial t} \nabla \phi = \nabla {\partial \phi \over \partial t} = - \nabla \omega \tag{5} $$ where we have used in the last step. That is to say: $$ {\partial \mathbf{k} \over \partial t} + \nabla \omega = 0 \tag{6} $$

We now recall that $\omega$ is a function of $\mathbf{k}$ (dispersion relation), id est, $\omega (x, y) = \omega (\mathbf{k} (x,y)) = \omega(k(x,y),l(x,y))$, so that we can rewrite the gradient of $\omega$ in "wavenmber coordinates" as: $$ \begin{align} \nabla \omega &= \left( {\partial \omega \over \partial x} , {\partial \omega \over \partial y}\right) \\ &= \left({\partial \omega \over \partial k} {\partial k \over \partial x} + {\partial \omega \over \partial l} {\partial l \over \partial x} , {\partial \omega \over \partial k} {\partial k \over \partial y} + {\partial \omega \over \partial l} {\partial l \over \partial y} \right) \\ &= \left( {\partial \omega \over \partial k} , {\partial \omega \over \partial l}\right) \left(\begin{array}{cc} \partial k \over \partial x & \partial k \over \partial y\\ \partial l \over \partial x & \partial l \over \partial y \end{array}\right) \\ &= \nabla _k \omega \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} \end{align} \tag{7} $$ where $\nabla \mathbf{k}$ is the jacobian matrix of $\mathbf{k}$.

Replacing this into ec , gives: $$ \frac{ \partial \mathbf{k} }{ \partial t } + \nabla _k \omega \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} = 0 \tag{8} $$

Recalling that the group velocity is $\mathbf{V}_{g} = \nabla _k \omega$: $$ \frac{ \partial \mathbf{k} }{ \partial t } + \mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} = 0 \tag{9} $$

This contrasts with eq. , because $\mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} \ne \left( \mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \right) \mathbf{k}$

Or, at least, this is what I think. To see this, let $\mathbf{V}_{g} = (v_x, v_y)$. Then:

$$ \begin{align} \left( \mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \right) \mathbf{k} &= \left[ ( v_x, v_y) \cdot \left( {\partial \over \partial x} , {\partial \over \partial y} \right) \right] \left( k, l \right) \\ &= \left(v_x {\partial \over \partial x} + v_y {\partial \over \partial y} \right) (k, l) \\ &= \left(v_x {\partial k \over \partial x} + v_y {\partial k \over \partial y}, v_x {\partial l \over \partial x} + v_y {\partial l \over \partial y} \right) \end{align} \tag{10} $$

In order to compare this with $\mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k}$, recall that $\mathbf{V}_{g} = \nabla _k \omega = \left({\partial \omega \over \partial k}, {\partial \omega \over \partial l} \right) = ( v_x, v_y )$, so that the second line of eq. is: $$ \begin{align} \mathbf{V}_{g} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} &= \nabla \omega \\ &= \left( {\partial \omega \over \partial x} , {\partial \omega \over \partial y}\right) \\ &= \left({\partial \omega \over \partial k} {\partial k \over \partial x} + {\partial \omega \over \partial l} {\partial l \over \partial x} , {\partial \omega \over \partial k} {\partial k \over \partial y} + {\partial \omega \over \partial l} {\partial l \over \partial y} \right) \\ &= \left({v_x} {\partial k \over \partial x} + {v_y} {\partial l \over \partial x} , {v_x} {\partial k \over \partial y} + {v_y} {\partial l \over \partial y} \right) \end{align} \tag{11} $$

Which is not the same as eq. What am I missing?

2 Answers2

1

Write this in coordinates. Let $$\left[\nabla \mathbf k\right]_{ij} = \frac{\partial k_j}{\partial x_i}$$

then $$\left[\mathbf v \cdot \nabla \mathbf k\right]_j = \sum_i v_i \frac{\partial k_j}{\partial x_i}$$ and $$\left[(\mathbf v \cdot \nabla) \mathbf k\right]_j = \sum_i v_i \frac{\partial} {\partial x_i}k_j\\=\sum_i v_i \frac{\partial k_j}{\partial x_i}$$

hyportnex
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  • Sorry, I do not manage well with this notation. I have edited a the question to provide a more detailed comparison of the two versions. Perhaps I have a mistake, but do not know where. – Antonio Serrano Feb 12 '24 at 16:12
  • I think that there is a mistake in your second formula and that it should be $ \sum _j v _j {\partial k _j \over \partial x _i }$, id est, the subscript of $v$ and the summation index, should be $j$. Or alternatively, $ \sum _i v _i {\partial k _i \over \partial x _j }$ (in this way, $j$ denotes the component of the result, as is intended in your original formula). – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 09:38
  • I retract from my above comment because, as mike stone has pointed out, ${\partial k_i \over \partial x_j} = {\partial k_j \over \partial x_i}$, so your formula is correct. – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 11:00
  • an "engineer's way" of knowing how to place the indices correctly is to remember that $\nabla = \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i}$ is a "row vector" while $\mathbf v = [v_i]$ is a column vector, and by $\mathbf v \cdot \nabla$ a "scalar" differential operator is meant that we can write as $\sum_i v_i \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i}$, so that in $(\mathbf v \cdot \nabla) \mathbf k$ the operator $\sum_i v_i \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i}$ is applied to each component of $\mathbf k = [k_j]$ separately. – hyportnex Feb 14 '24 at 11:17
  • And, how would you express with this notation that $\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} = (\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla ) \mathbf{k}$ when ${\partial k_i \over \partial x_j} = {\partial k_j \over \partial x_i}$ ? – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 11:59
  • $\nabla \mathbf k$ is a matrix whose first row is $\frac{\partial k_1}{\partial x_j}$, second row is $\frac{\partial k_2}{\partial x_j}$, etc., $j=1,2,...n$. To form $\mathbf v \cdot \nabla \mathbf k$ you multiply this matrix with a column vector $[v_1, v_2, ...]^T$ – hyportnex Feb 14 '24 at 12:37
  • So, I would say $[\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k}]_j = \sum _i v_i {\partial k_i \over \partial x_j} = \sum _i v_i {\partial k_j \over \partial x_i} = (\sum _i v_i {\partial \over \partial x_i}) k_j = [(\mathbf{v} \cdot \nabla ) \mathbf{k}]_j$. Do you agree? – Antonio Serrano Feb 16 '24 at 14:24
1

Here is my way of proceeding. Most of it agrees with you, but I can't quite pin down where we differ. Perhaps the mixed-partial trick of interchanging the $i$ and $j$?

The essential feature of a wave train is that at any particular point of space and time, ${\bf x}$ and $t$, it has a definite phase $\Theta({\bf x},t)$. Once we know this phase, we can define the local frequency $\omega$ and wave-vector ${\bf k}$ by $$ \omega= -\left(\frac{\partial\Theta}{\partial t}\right)_{\bf x},\qquad k_i = \left(\frac{\partial\Theta}{\partial x_i }\right)_t. $$ These definitions are motivated by the idea that $$ \Theta({\bf x},t)\sim {\bf k}\cdot {\bf x} -\omega t, $$ at least locally.

The subscripts on the partial derivatives indicate what is being left fixed when we differentiate. We must be careful about this, because we want to use the dispersion equation to express $\omega$ as a function of ${\bf k}$ and ${\bf x}$, and the wave-vector ${\bf k}$ will itself be a function of ${\bf x}$ and $t$.

We wish to understand how ${\bf k}$ changes as the wave propagates through a slowly varying medium. We introduce the inhomogeneity by assuming that the dispersion equation $\omega=\omega ({\bf k})$, which is initially derived for a uniform medium, can be extended to $\omega =\omega({\bf k}, {\bf x})$, where the $\bf x$ dependence arises, for example, as a result of a position-dependent refractive index. This assumption is only an approximation, but it is a good approximation when the distance over which the medium changes is much larger than the distance between wavecrests.

Applying the equality of mixed partials to the definitions of ${\bf k}$ and $\omega$ gives us $$ \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x_i }\right)_t= -\left(\frac{\partial k_i}{\partial t }\right)_{\bf x},\quad \left(\frac{\partial k_i}{\partial x_j }\right)_{x_i}= \left(\frac{\partial k_j}{\partial x_i }\right)_{x_j}. $$ Again the subscripts indicate what is being left fixed when we differentiate.

Now use the chain rule $$ \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x_i }\right)_t= \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x_i }\right)_{\bf k} + \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial k_j }\right)_{\bf x}\left(\frac{\partial k_j}{\partial x_i }\right)_t. $$ We now use one of the previous mixed-partial identities to interchange the $i$, $j$ labels in the fixed-$t$ partial derivative, and so get $$ \left(\frac{\partial k_i}{\partial t }\right)_{\bf x}+ \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial k_j }\right)_{\bf x}\left(\frac{\partial k_i}{\partial x_j }\right)_t = -\left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x_i }\right)_{\bf k}. $$ Interpreting the left hand side as a convective derivative $$ \frac{dk_i}{dt}\equiv \left(\frac{\partial k_i}{\partial t }\right)_{\bf x}+({\bf V}_g\cdot\nabla) k_i, $$ we see that we percive a time rate of change of the wavevector as
$$ \frac {dk_i}{dt}= -\left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial x_i }\right)_{\bf k} $$ provided we are moving at velocity $$ \frac {dx_i}{dt}=({\bf V}_g)_i= \left(\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial k_i }\right)_{\bf x}. $$ Since this is the group velocity, the packet of waves is actually travelling at this speed. The last two equations therefore tell us how the orientation and wavelength of the wave train evolve if we ride along with the packet as it is refracted by the inhomogeneity.

The formulae $$ \dot {\bf k} = -\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial {\bf x} }, \\ \dot {\bf x}= \phantom -\frac{\partial \omega}{\partial {\bf k} }, $$ are Hamilton's ray equations. Their similarity to the Hamilton equations of mechanics should be manifest.

mike stone
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  • Wow!, your approach is more general than mine, because I regard that all the dependence of $\omega$ on $\mathbf{x}$ (position vector) is through $\mathbf{k}$, and only through $\mathbf{k}$, and you admit that there can be a dependence that is not through $\mathbf{k}$. In the end, you get to a formula that, when the dependence is only through $\mathbf{k}$, reduces to eq. 1 of the OP, so that it would not be a typo. But I still have to find were my reasoning differs from yours. – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 10:13
  • Eureka!, as you pointed out: "the mixed-partial trick of interchanging the i and j" is the point. It is the property of ${\left( \partial k_i \over x_j \right) _{x _i}} = {\left( \partial k_j \over x_i \right) _{x _j} }$ that makes $\mathbf{V _g} \cdot \nabla \mathbf{k} = \left( \mathbf{V _g} \cdot \nabla \right) \mathbf{k}$. So, both versions, eq. 1 of OP and eq.9 of OP, are equivalent and correct, but eq.1 is more attractive, because it says that the local tendency of $\mathbf{k}$ equals its advection. – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 10:44
  • Or more generally (thanks to your deduction), the local tendency of $\mathbf{k}$ equals its advection minus the gradient of $\omega$ holding $k$ constant. – Antonio Serrano Feb 14 '24 at 10:50
  • @Antonio Serrana: I learned this from James Lighthill's book "Waves in fluids" The identification $\omega({\bf x}, {\bf k})$ with the Hamiltonian $H({\bf x}, {\bf p})$ of classical mechanics is basically the wave particle duality of quantum mechanics. – mike stone Feb 14 '24 at 13:17