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I am having a real difficult to counting degree of freedom. In fact, I notice that sometimes I am confused about what exactly we count as DoF, and what we do not count.

See, for example, the electromagnetic field. The potential has a gauge symmetry

$$\partial_{\mu} A^{\mu} = 0$$

Now, initially, in $d=4$, this potential has $4$ dof, but the gauge symmetry (1 eq) decrease it by 1, so we have $3$ now. If we study the equations of motion, we will see the further condition for massless particles

$$\epsilon_{\mu} k^{\mu} = 0$$

Which restrict even more the dof, so we have 2 now. Ok. What is confusing me is that, sometimes, I have seen people (see for example asperanz's answer here) using the diffeomorphism of the spacetime to restrict the dof as well, and this is confusing me. How can it restrict something? I mean, if so, $A_{\mu}$ has 4 transformation ($\mu = 0,...3$) and has no dof?

LSS
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  • Gauge symmetry does not reduce the degrees of freedom, however, fixing some particular gauge does. – Albertus Magnus Feb 27 '24 at 16:26
  • Possible duplicates: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/119756/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/31143/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/395284/2451 , https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/427816/2451 and links therein. – Qmechanic Feb 27 '24 at 17:21
  • @Qmechanic The question is about diffeomorphism of the spacetime, not about EM itself. EM was just an example – LSS Feb 27 '24 at 17:33
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    Diffeomorphism of the spacetime only applies to GR, not EM/YM gauge theory. – Qmechanic Feb 27 '24 at 18:11

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