I am aware of the difference between using \(...\) and $...$ (in moving arguments, for example), and yes, I've read the answers to this question: Are \( and \) preferable to $?). I also know the definition of \( and \):
\def\({\relax\ifmmode\@badmath\else$\fi}
\def\){\relax\ifmmode\ifinner$\else\@badmath\fi\else\@badmath\fi}
(taken from Section 55.2 of source2e.pdf)
My question here is: couldn't \( and \) have been defined as robust commands in the LaTeX kernel? Is there any (non trivial) reason explaining why they were defined as fragile commands?