Here is the proof of the Kolmogorov Zero-One Law and the lemmas used to prove it in Williams' Probability book:

Here are my questions:
Why exactly are $\mathfrak{K}_{\infty}$ and $\mathfrak{T}$ independent? I get that $\mathfrak{K}_{\infty}$ is a countable union of $\sigma$-algebras that each are independent with $\mathfrak{T}$, but I don't see how exactly that means $\mathfrak{K}_{\infty}$ and $\mathfrak{T}$ are independent kind of like here.
How exactly does one show that $\mathfrak{T} \subseteq \mathfrak{X}_{\infty}$?
That is, how exactly does one show that $\bigcap_{n \geq 0} \sigma(X_{n+1}, X_{n+2}, ...) \subseteq \sigma [\sigma(X_1) \cup \sigma(X_1, X_2) \cup ...]$?
Intuitively, I get it. I just wonder how to prove it rigorously.
What I tried:
Suppose $A \in \mathfrak{T}$. Then A is in the preimage of...I don't know. Help please?