Recently I stumbled upon this short proof here:
$$L(1,\chi_2)=\sum_{j=0}^{+\infty}\left(\frac{1}{3j+1}-\frac{1}{3j+2}\right)=\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1-x}{1-x^3}\,dx=\int_{0}^{1}\frac{dx}{1+x+x^2}$$ so: $$\color{red}{L(1,\chi_2)}=\int_{0}^{1/2}\frac{dx}{x^2+3/4}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\arctan\sqrt{3}=\color{red}{\frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{3}}.}$$
So I was wondering: what if we have a polynomial $$Q(X)$$ in place of 1+x+x^2 in the denominator.Using partial fractions, the integral can be evaluated $$\sum_{j=0}^{\infty}a_n,$$ where $$a_n = \sum_{j=0}^{k}-\frac{1}{\alpha_i^n.n.Q'(\alpha_i)}$$
In the case of $$Q=x^2+x+1$$ we have that $$a_n/n$$ is actually a character mod 3, sending 1mod 3 to 1, 2 mod 3 to -1 and 0 mod 3 to 0.Can this be generalised?Also, we needn't stop at having just one polynomial, we can have a polynomial P at the numerator.If we can do this, we can evaluate L-functions as integrals of rational functions.