This is Velleman's exercise 3.5.21 (And NO, not a duplicate of "Suppose $A, B$, and C are sets. Prove that $C\subset A\Delta B \Leftrightarrow C \subset A \cup B$ and $A \cap B \cap C = \emptyset $", my question is different):
Suppose $A$, $B$, and $C$ are sets. Prove that $C \subseteq A\,\triangle\,B$ iff $C \subseteq A \cup B$ and $A \cap B \cap C = \emptyset$.
And here's my proof of it:
Proof.
($\rightarrow$) Suppose $C ⊆ A △ B$ and let $x$ be an arbitrary element of $C$, then we have $x ∈ A △ B$. We now consider two cases:
Case 1. $x ∈ A\setminus B$, which means $x ∈ A$ but $x ∉ B$. Thus $x ∈ A ∪ B$.
Case 2. $x ∈ B\setminus A$, which means $x ∈ B$ but $x ∉ A$. Thus $x ∈ A ∪ B$.
Now suppose $A ∩ B ∩ C \neq ∅$. From $x ∈ A △ B$ we have that either $x ∉ A$ or $x ∉ B$ which in either case is a contradiction and hence $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$.
We have $x ∈ A ∪ B$ and $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$ and therefore, if $C ⊆ A △ B$, then $C ⊆ A ∪ B$ and $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$.
($\leftarrow$) Suppose $C ⊆ A ∪ B$ and $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$ and let $x$ be an arbitrary element of $C$. We now have two different cases to consider:
Case 1. $x ∈ B\setminus A$, then clearly $x ∈ A △ B$.
Case 2. $x ∉ B\setminus A$, which means $x ∈ A$ but $x ∉ B$. Since $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$ is equivalent to $∀x(x ∈ A \Rightarrow (x ∈ C \Rightarrow x ∉ B))$, then by $x ∈ A$ we have $(x ∈ C \Rightarrow x ∉ B)$. Since we had $x ∈ C$, then $x ∉ B$ and then $x ∈ A\setminus B$. Ergo $x ∈ A △ B$.
From both case we have $x ∈ A △ B$. Since $x$ was arbitrary, $C ⊆ A △ B$ and therefore, if $C ⊆ A ∪ B$ and $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$, then $C ⊆ A △ B$.
By ($\rightarrow$) and ($\leftarrow$) we have $C ⊆ A △ B$ iff $C ⊆ A ∪ B$ and $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$.
Now here are my questions:
Is my proof valid?
In part one (i.e. ($\rightarrow$)), is there anything wrong with the proof of $A ∩ B ∩ C = ∅$?
In part two (i.e. ($\leftarrow$)), the second case seems to be a little redundant to me! Is that correct (i.e. is my proof of it correct)?
Thanks in advance.