Let $$R = \{(x,y,z)\in \mathbb{R}^3 \mid x^2+y^2+z^2 \le 1\}$$ and $$D^3 = \{(x,y,z)\in\mathbb{R}^3 \mid |x|+|y|+|z| \le 1\}.$$ $R$ can be described as a solid sphere (or a $3$-dimensional disk) and $D^3$ can be described as a octahedron. It's relatively straight forward to show $R \cong D^3$ using the maps $f:D^3 \to R$ given by $$f(x,y,z) = \frac{\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}}{|x|+|y|+|z|}(x,y,z)$$ and $g:R \to D^3$ given by $$g(x,y,z) = \frac{|x|+|y|+|z|}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2+z^2}}(x,y,z).$$ However, I think this method is quite boring.
Instead, is it possible to use the fact that a solid circle is homeomorphic to a solid rhombus? For each $z \in [-1,1]$, $$\{(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}^2 \mid x^2+y^2 \le 1 - z^2\} \cong \{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2 \mid |x|+|y| \le 1 - |z|\}.$$ Thus, can we just correspond each "slice" of $R$ with a "slice" of $D^3$, and use the fact that each of these "slices" are homeomorphic to show that $R \cong D^3$?