We have a point process where the interarrival time is described by a random variable, $T$. Further, $E(T)=t$ and $T=t+\epsilon$, where $E(\epsilon)=0$ and $\epsilon \in (-t, \infty)$. The $\epsilon$ terms of successive inter-arrival samples are denoted $\epsilon_i$ and they can be correlated with each other.
We take some arbitrary interval of size $u$ and observe the number of events, $N$ that fall into this interval. Note that the interval is started at some random time, $J$ which is completely un-correlated with the point process itself. This makes the interval $(J,J+u)$. Here by definition, we pick $J$ in a way that conditional on the arrivals, $T_i$ for the $i$th event and the fact that $J$ lies between $T_i$ and $T_{i+1}$, $J-T_i$ is uniform over the interval $(T_i, T_{i+1})$. This can be achieved for example, by requiring $J$ be uniform over a very large interval, much larger than $t$.
I conjecture (regardless of the distribution of $T$):
$$E(N) = \frac{u}{t}$$
How do I prove or disprove this in general? Here are some special cases.
Case-1: when $T \sim Exp(\lambda)$, this becomes a Poisson process and it is easy to show this.
Case-2: when $\epsilon = 0$, we get a deterministic process where events happen every $t$ interval. Please pay careful attention to this case since it is crucial in understanding the premise of the question.
Let $X$ be the time from the start of the interval to the very first event. By definition, $X$ is a uniform random variable between $0$ and $t$. In this case we get:
$$N = 1 + \left[\frac{u-X}{t}\right]=1+\left[\frac{u}{t}-\frac{X}{t}\right]=1+\left[\frac{u}{t}-U\right]$$
Where $U$ is a uniform random variable between $0$ and $1$. Taking expectation, we get:
$$E(N) = \frac{u}{t}$$
using the result here: Prove that $E([c-U]) = c-1$.
One approach to prove this for the general case could be to somehow take all the $\epsilon_i$'s and fold them into $u$.
Here is a python simulation that demonstrates this for a particular point process that has inter-arrival time: $10$ with $50\%$ probability and $20$ with $50\%$ probability. This makes the average inter-arrival time, $t=15$. And the number of events within a window of size $1$ unit is $\frac{1}{15}$. You can plug other inter-arrival distributions into the code below and see that the conjecture continues to hold.
import numpy as np
catches = 0
for _ in range(50000):
j = np.random.uniform()*1000
#j = np.random.exponential(500)
t_i = 0
while t_i < j+100:
if np.random.uniform() < 0.5:
t_i += 10
else:
t_i += 20
if j < t_i and t_i < j+1:
catches += 1
print(catches/50000)
See here: https://gist.github.com/ryu577/662f9cb593d40920e161cfef3eba0244 for a variety of inter-arrival distributions all satisfying this conjecture.
EDIT: In case anyone is looking for inspiration, here is something I was trying: Need help validating a proof that for any point process with MTBF $t$, the events in an interval sized $u$ will be $\frac{u}{t}$. It's an attempt at a proof, but I now know the proof doesn't work. In the end of it, $\eta$ and $U$ are not independent and that's what kills it.